Revelation - The Songs in Heaven are in Aramaic

You seem to have a very skewed understanding of what a discussion is. The "expert" that you want is the source document itself. Do you not investigate the original manuscripts and texts? Or do you rely on and blindly accept some person to guide your opinion?

What reference to manuscripts do you have that did not come from the hands of latter scribe? That itself is often opinion. Scribes are the reason that variants exist. Some are simple mistakes while others are purposeful.

I choose to listen to an opinion and then find the source document and look it over for myself to make up my own mind. If that's not what you do, then I'm not interested in anything you have to say. You are just regurgitating things.

Point to a single thing that I have "regurgitated". Just one. If you know the subject then it should be easy for you to do so.

I don't think YOU get it. I don't have to defend anything. The facts are the facts. The evidence is the evidence. I don't deal with "opinions" or "hearsay". If you can't be bothered to check out the sources for yourself, then really, I have absolutely no desire in responding to anything you have to say.

You pointed me to books written by men. You pointed to a late manuscript that you insist is absolute when there are so very few that can be considered such from any pedigree. What people claim are "facts" are often nothing more than normalized opinions.

It's like you don't even read to comprehend. You have a made up mind about every subject. No one can tell you anything different. We all had better watch out if we write something you don't agree with because you know everything about everything. I can state with almost certainty that you haven't even bothered to check out for yourself whether or not the transliteration of the Aramaic song text is correct (at the beginning of this thread). The point of this thread is to discuss that. And if you don't have the interest or need to verify for yourself, then please, stop polluting this thread already.

I've asked multiple questions to challenge your position. I argue my positions as if it is right because that is what is necessary for debate to take place. The dialogue is there to establish viability.
 
As further evidence, I took the first song and constructed a transliteration to examine the vocal sounds. This shows the internal rhyme and overall meter of the song. The accents are arranged in 3 + 2 structure. The rhyme within the lines become very obvious. And this is grammatically correct Aramaic. I then compared it with the passage as found in the Peshitta and it matches very closely.

You can easily do this yourself to verify. The rules of the Hebrew letters and vowel markers are very easy to find. Aramaic can be written using several alphabets - the Hebrew being one of them.

And to be clear. This rhyme and meter does not appear in the Greek text. Only the Aramaic. This shows that these songs will be sung in Aramaic in heaven.


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When were vocolizations introduced in Aramaic, Greek and Hebrew?
 
What reference to manuscripts do you have that did not come from the hands of latter scribe? That itself is often opinion. Scribes are the reason that variants exist. Some are simple mistakes while others are purposeful.



Point to a single thing that I have "regurgitated". Just one. If you know the subject then it should be easy for you to do so.



You pointed me to books written by men. You pointed to a late manuscript that you insist is absolute when there are so very few that can be considered such from any pedigree. What people claim are "facts" are often nothing more than normalized opinions.



I've asked multiple questions to challenge your position. I argue my positions as if it is right because that is what is necessary for debate to take place. The dialogue is there to establish viability.
Unless and until you actually respond with something applicable to the THREAD, there's nothing to respond to.
 
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