brightfame52
Active Member
Who says I'm ignoring scripture? Sounds like a false accusation
No person can come to Christ by their own freewill !
- Thread starter brightfame52
- Start date
Never does election or predestination refer to salvation, but always and only to particular benefits. “What must be borne in mind is the fact that predestination is not God’s predetermining from past ages who should and who should not be saved. Scripture does not teach this view.”
Ironside declares: “… There is no reference in these four verses [the only four that refer to predestination] to either heaven or hell, but to Christlikeness eventually. Nowhere are we told in Scripture that God predestined one man to be saved and another to be lost.”
Ironside declares: “… There is no reference in these four verses [the only four that refer to predestination] to either heaven or hell, but to Christlikeness eventually. Nowhere are we told in Scripture that God predestined one man to be saved and another to be lost.”
brightfame52
Active Member
Yes Salvation Benefits lol
That you are ignoring scripture?
brightfame52
Active Member
That's Salvation, Glorification
ignoring scripture
I am uncertain as to his view.
This translation just did twice.
2 Cor 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us once we have reached the conclusion that one man died for all and therefore all mankind has died.
Heb 2:9 What we do see is Jesus, who for a short while was made subordinate to the angels, crowned now with glory and honour because he suffered death, so that, by God’s gracious will, he should experience death for all mankind.
synergy
Active Member
We discussed that already. So how do we guard against the error of people using the James definition of faith from applying it directly to Paul's usage of faith? BF52 and all Calvinists are perfect examples of people doing just that.
synergy
Active Member
My view is that semantics plays a tremendous role in everyday communications. When we talk to Calvinists, and especially cultists like JWs or Mormons, we must have an agreed upon definition of words if we are ever to reach them. If one set of people have James' definition of faith in their understanding of Sola Fide and another set of people have Paul's understanding of faith in their understanding of Sola Fide then the 2 Parties will only talk past each other and get nowhere fast. How do we remedy that situation?
Last edited:
Question each other's understanding of faith.
Again question their understanding of faith.
civic
Active Member
yes because they don't have the same meaning.
brightfame52
Active Member
Nowhere does scripture specifically says Christ died for all mankind,or everyone without expectation
brightfame52
Active Member
No they dont
This translation just did twice.
2 Cor 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us once we have reached the conclusion that one man died for all and therefore all mankind has died.
Heb 2:9 What we do see is Jesus, who for a short while was made subordinate to the angels, crowned now with glory and honour because he suffered death, so that, by God’s gracious will, he should experience death for all mankind.
Agreed
Hosanna
Active Member
Sure do
2 Cor 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us once we have reached the conclusion that one man died for all and therefore all mankind has died.
Heb 2:9 What we do see is Jesus, who for a short while was made subordinate to the angels, crowned now with glory and honour because he suffered death, so that, by God’s gracious will, he should experience death for all mankind.
