Mary, the mother of the Lord

Runningman

Well-known member
In Luke 1, Elizabeth refers to Mary as the mother of the Lord. So when Elizabeth called Mary the mother of the Lord, is Elizabeth referring to Mary being the mother of a human Lord or a God Lord?

Luke 1 (NIV)
43But why am I so favored, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?
 
The unborn Child in Mary's womb is referred to as Elizabeth's "Lord."

Mary was the earthly, human mother of Jesus incarnate. She was an unmarried virgin engaged to a man named Joseph when the Holy Spirit overshadowed her, and she supernaturally conceived Jesus. She was only chosen to bear the Savior in her womb by God's grace and unmerited favor.

Mary was a sinner needing a Savior.

Mary said; My soul exalts the Lord, and my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.
Luke 1:46-47

Now when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were completed, they brought Him to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord (as it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male who opens the womb shall be called holy to the Lord, and to offer a sacrifice according to what is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves or two young pigeons.
Luke 2:22-24
 
is Elizabeth referring to Mary being the mother of a human Lord or a God Lord?

I rather suspect she was speaking of Messiah because the angel said Mary's baby
would not only be born a son of God, but also be given the throne of his ancestor
David. (Luke 1:32)


NOTE: David's kings started off known as sons of God (2Sam 7:12-14) I'm not sure
if his line retained that distinction but for sure Jesus did.
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Addressing the OP,
Question, was Mary the mother biologically to, to, to, the Lord Jesus body? yes, only his body, because she is a surrogate mother only. for God the Lord Jesus have not a biological mother. he is without father or mother.

101G.
 
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FAQ: Was Jesus born with normal blood or with divine blood?

REPLY: Jesus was put on track to take David's throne.

Luke 1:31-33 . .You will be with child and give birth to a son, and you are to give him
the name Jesus. He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord
God will give him the throne of his father David, and he will reign over the house of
Jacob forever; his kingdom will never end.

Candidates under consideration for David's throne have to be-- first and foremost --one
of his natural descendants.

Ps 132:11 . .The Lord has sworn in truth unto David; and He will not turn from it: "Of
the fruit of your body will I set upon your throne"

The New Testament verifies Jesus is the fruit of David's body spoken of in that oath.

Acts 2:29-30 . . Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David,
that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto this day. Therefore
being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of
his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne.

Rom 1:3 . . . His son; descended from David according to the flesh

The thing is: according to Lev 17:11, the life of the flesh is in the blood. So if the life in
Jesus flesh had been God's blood instead of David's blood, then Jesus' flesh would not
have been David's flesh; and Jesus would've failed to qualify for David's throne.


FAQ: Why do some Christians insist the blood in Jesus' flesh was God's blood instead
of human blood?


REPLY: They sincerely believe human blood isn't pure enough to atone for the sins of
the entire human race. However, according to 1Pet 1:19 Jesus had only to be a lamb
without blemish or spot. In other words; he had only to be 100% innocent of any wrong
doing of his own; and according to John 8:29, 2Cor 5:21, Heb 4:15, 1Pet 2:22, and
1John 3:9 he was.

* The bottom line is the Word came into the world not as a divine man, but instead he
came as a Jewish man. (Gen 49:8-10, Rom 8:3, Heb 7:14) In point of fact; it was
absolutely essential for the Word to come into the world as a Jew. (Heb 2:16-18)
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