High Christology in Gal 3:19-20

I'm not aware of anyone writing Paul's letters but himself. Where does that unexpected concept originate? The scholars pretty much recognize Galatians as authentically Paul's writing. It would be hard to imagine that someone else wrote this riddled passage to convey the divinity of Christ. So, the normal option is to say Paul wrote it.
Luke wrote Paul's letters for him, at least sometimes, but it's not important. How could God mediate for Himself when a mediator is a go-between for differing parties? If the conclusion contradicts the premise, the premise is flawed.
 
Luke wrote Paul's letters for him, at least sometimes, but it's not important. How could God mediate for Himself when a mediator is a go-between for differing parties? If the conclusion contradicts the premise, the premise is flawed.
You are off topic on both issues. I did miss that Paul is well recognized as using an amanuensis since he also mentions writing a small part with his own hand. I've not seen Luke mentioned for this.
 
You are off topic on both issues. I did miss that Paul is well recognized as using an amanuensis since he also mentions writing a small part with his own hand. I've not seen Luke mentioned for this.
Reread your other comments. My comment is squarely on topic.
 
Your discussion is okay. I just am pointing out that the context ought to be considered closer. But various commentators have proposed that an emphasis on Abraham in these verses despite the shift to Jesus we find here.
Are you able to explain the fit of your interpretation regarding the relevance to the problems in Galatia?

'Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.'
(Gal 3:20 )

Hello @mikesw,

Yes, I acknowledge the point you have made regarding the context, and will take it onboard.

The verse (Gal. 3:16), 'Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not , and to seeds, as of many, but as of one and to thy seed which is Christ', is echoed in the last verse of the chapter, 'And if ye (the Galatian believers) be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.' (Gal 3:29). So Abraham has a literal seed as well as a spiritual one.

In Genesis 21:12, it says, '... for in Isaac shall thy seed be called'. The Hebrew 'zera' is a collective noun and is used here as a singular with a singular verb. But if we turn to Genesis 17:7, where it says, 'And I will establish My covenant between Me and thee and thy seed (zera) after thee in their generations, for an everlasting covenant ... ' Here Zera is obviously treated as a plural (generations) and the truth of the matter is that the Seed, Christ and the seed ( Abraham's posterity) is looked on as a unity in the kingdom purposes of God and both are necessary in the divine plan. The Lord Jesus Christ is the one foundation for the whole redemptive purpose of God which embraces both heaven and earth. In this way the Apostle was able to dispose of objections that might be made by any judaistic opposer, that the law of Moses cancelled the promises of grace made to Abraham four centuries before.

The apostle does not seek to minimise in any way the law of God given through Moses. It was given in awe-inspiring majesty through the mediation of angels and Moses (Acts 7:53). It was 'ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator' (Gal. 3:19). This shows there must be two contracting parties. God on the one hand and Israel on the other. When God dealt with Abraham, no such mediation was needed and Abraham was even put to sleep, that all might be of God's doing (Gen. 15:12) for this was all of grace.

This is so much better than law, which in spite of its standards, cannot annul the promises of God. Are these two in opposition? 'Is the law against the promises of God? (v.21). This is impossible for it would imply that there is inner conflict in the mind of God. Promise and law come equally from God but need to be related to the place the Scriptures reveal that they occupy in His purpose. The law shuts up (concludes) all under sin, leaving only one way out and that is solely through Christ Jesus by grace and received on the principle of faith (v.22).

Paul's illustration concerning what he means by being 'shut up under sin' is by giving the duties of a guardian slave, translated 'schoolmaster' in the KJV.

'Among the Greeks and Romans the name was applied to trustworthy slaves who were charged with the duty of supervising the life and morals of the boys belonging to the better class. The boys were not allowed so much as to step out of the house without them before arriving at the age of manhood' (Thayer)​

The time in the experience of the Galatians that this illustrated was likened to bondage, but now they are all 'the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus' (v.26) and the bondage is cancelled and in its place is sonship with divine inheritance in view. Not only this, but by the redemptive work of Christ which has completely liberated them, they are welded together as an entity in Christ Jesus. They are One in Him and all earthly labels and divisions have vanished.

'There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free,
there is neither male nor female, for ye are all one in Christ Jesus
'
(v.28).

'In Christ Jesus' gives their standing in Christ and they join the spiritual ranks of faithful Abraham and those who walked in his footsteps. Who believed God and it was counted unto him for righteousness (Gen. 15:6)

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

* reference made to: 'The Galatian & Roman Epistles of Paul' by Stuart Allen.
 
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'Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace;
to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed;

not to that only which is of the law,
but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham;
who is the father of us all,
(As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,)
before Him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead,
and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
Who against hope believed in hope,
that he might become the father of many nations,
according to that which was spoken,
So shall thy seed be.'
(Rom 4:16-18)

Praise God!
 
'Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.'
(Gal 3:20 )

Hello @mikesw,

Yes, I acknowledge the point you have made regarding the context, and will take it onboard.

The verse (Gal. 3:16), 'Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not , and to seeds, as of many, but as of one and to thy seed which is Christ', is echoed in the last verse of the chapter, 'And if ye (the Galatian believers) be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.' (Gal 3:29). So Abraham has a literal seed as well as a spiritual one.

In Genesis 21:12, it says, '... for in Isaac shall thy seed be called'. The Hebrew 'zera' is a collective noun and is used here as a singular with a singular verb. But if we turn to Genesis 17:7, where it says, 'And I will establish My covenant between Me and thee and thy seed (zera) after thee in their generations, for an everlasting covenant ... ' Here Zera is obviously treated as a plural (generations) and the truth of the matter is that the Seed, Christ and the seed ( Abraham's posterity) is looked on as a unity in the kingdom purposes of God and both are necessary in the divine plan. The Lord Jesus Christ is the one foundation for the whole redemptive purpose of God which embraces both heaven and earth. In this way the Apostle was able to dispose of objections that might be made by any judaistic opposer, that the law of Moses cancelled the promises of grace made to Abraham four centuries before.

The apostle does not seek to minimise in any way the law of God given through Moses. It was given in awe-inspiring majesty through the mediation of angels and Moses (Acts 7:53). It was 'ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator' (Gal. 3:19). This shows there must be two contracting parties. God on the one hand and Israel on the other. When God dealt with Abraham, no such mediation was needed and Abraham was even put to sleep, that all might be of God's doing (Gen. 15:12) for this was all of grace.

This is so much better than law, which in spite of its standards, cannot annul the promises of God. Are these two in opposition? 'Is the law against the promises of God? (v.21). This is impossible for it would imply that there is inner conflict in the mind of God. Promise and law come equally from God but need to be related to the place the Scriptures reveal that they occupy in His purpose. The law shuts up (concludes) all under sin, leaving only one way out and that is solely through Christ Jesus by grace and received on the principle of faith (v.22).

Paul's illustration concerning what he means by being 'shut up under sin' is by giving the duties of a guardian slave, translated 'schoolmaster' in the KJV.

'Among the Greeks and Romans the name was applied to trustworthy slaves who were charged with the duty of supervising the life and morals of the boys belonging to the better class. The boys were not allowed so much as to step out of the house without them before arriving at the age of manhood' (Thayer)​

The time in the experience of the Galatians that this illustrated was likened to bondage, but now they are all 'the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus' (v.26) and the bondage is cancelled and in its place is sonship with divine inheritance in view. Not only this, but by the redemptive work of Christ which has completely liberated them, they are welded together as an entity in Christ Jesus. They are One in Him and all earthly labels and divisions have vanished.

'There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free,
there is neither male nor female, for ye are all one in Christ Jesus
'
(v.28).

'In Christ Jesus' gives their standing in Christ and they join the spiritual ranks of faithful Abraham and those who walked in his footsteps. Who believed God and it was counted unto him for righteousness (Gen. 15:6)

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

* reference made to: 'The Galatian & Roman Epistles of Paul' by Stuart Allen.
I see at the end of your post where you specify a source for part of your post. It still is worth mentioning that you are sharing one line of interpretation that has been common enough. It is one that, as much as I can tell, tries to preserve the idea that one is beholden to the letter of the law upon following Christ.
What I shared is something that takes into account the details described earlier that essentially are missed and result in ambiguities that were not resolved. This summary lacks much of the detail and thus makes the idea easier to dismiss. I just wanted to give an introduction or summary for now.
 
I see at the end of your post where you specify a source for part of your post. It still is worth mentioning that you are sharing one line of interpretation that has been common enough. It is one that, as much as I can tell, tries to preserve the idea that one is beholden to the letter of the law upon following Christ.
What I shared is something that takes into account the details described earlier that essentially are missed and result in ambiguities that were not resolved. This summary lacks much of the detail and thus makes the idea easier to dismiss. I just wanted to give an introduction or summary for now.
Hello @miksw,

You are wrong regarding what I believe concerning the law.

My user name should have prevented that assumption. For I believe that I am complete in Christ Jesus.

Within the love of Christ our Saviour,
our Lord and Head.
Complete
 
Hello @miksw,

You are wrong regarding what I believe concerning the law.

My user name should have prevented that assumption. For I believe that I am complete in Christ Jesus.

Within the love of Christ our Saviour,
our Lord and Head.
Complete
Many people somehow find there to be a continuing obligation to the letter of the Mosaic law. I can only share what I found while possibly adding in some discussion on other views. I do recognize that the Mosaic law can be used for general guidance and corrective actions. The Roman gentiles, per my finding in Romans 6, had actually made a doctrine to sin in order to increase grace. Their behavior obviously needed to be challenged while giving them a chance to be freed from the enslavement to the flesh.
 
In Genesis 21:12, it says, '... for in Isaac shall thy seed be called'. The Hebrew 'zera' is a collective noun and is used here as a singular with a singular verb. But if we turn to Genesis 17:7, where it says, 'And I will establish My covenant between Me and thee and thy seed (zera) after thee in their generations, for an everlasting covenant ... ' Here Zera is obviously treated as a plural (generations) and the truth of the matter is that the Seed, Christ and the seed ( Abraham's posterity) is looked on as a unity in the kingdom purposes of God and both are necessary in the divine plan. The Lord Jesus Christ is the one foundation for the whole redemptive purpose of God which embraces both heaven and earth. In this way the Apostle was able to dispose of objections that might be made by any judaistic opposer, that the law of Moses cancelled the promises of grace made to Abraham four centuries before.
Very odd. I could not find among my initial files the Genesis passage with the promise to Abraham that I considered most direct to be of Jesus. It turns out that Gen 22:18 is that verse.
“In your seed all the nations of the earth shall be blessed,because you have obeyed My voice.”
This verse is worded a bit different by adding the word "in." Other verses are more direct as in verse 17 "and your seed shall possess the gate of their enemies"
 
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