He that believes and is not water baptised is saved

A contradiction in sripture?

No. The opposite of Mark 16:16 is not true. I.e. 'He that is believes and is not baptised is not saved'

The book of John is about assuring believers have eternal life and doesn't mention water baptism much at all.
The book of Romans is about justification by faith in Christ alone and doesn't mention water baptism alot.

So Mark 16:16 need to be put alongside the verses in these books, and not held on it's own.

Same goes for Acts 2:38. It doesn't standalone.

Eternal salvation is, led by Jesus, believing Jesus is God, that He died and rose again, and that by believing in Him you have everlasting life.

Water baptism is as representation/symbol of this happening. As I typed before-- being baptised 'for' the remission of sins, is being baptised for something already happened. Like having a pill 'for' the cold.

Anyway.. I know this has been done to death, but seems popular now for people to think baptism saves eternally. The only kind of salvation it is related to is having a 'salvaged life'.. becoming a faithful believer after eternal salvation. It isn't hooked to eternal salvation. It isn't guaranteed to happen for a believer either.
While it's true that water baptism is not absolutely required for salvation, as some have said already, it would be highly unusual for a real believer to not get water baptized following their sincere obedience to the gospel. You did a good job understanding this, even though there are seemingly contradictory verses on this in the Bible. It has to be rightly divided until a proper conclusion is made.

However, what is curious is that after reaching an appropriate understanding of a hotly debated topic of water baptism versus belief, you went off the deep end and preached a false gospel of idolatry by saying "Eternal salvation is, led by Jesus, believing Jesus is God..." which is not what the Bible says at all.

Let's begin with what the Bible explicitly says. Does the Bible explicitly say to believe that Jesus is the messiah and son of God, but makes no mention of believing his is God, for salvation?
 
While it's true that water baptism is not absolutely required for salvation, as some have said already, it would be highly unusual for a real believer to not get water baptized following their sincere obedience to the gospel. You did a good job understanding this, even though there are seemingly contradictory verses on this in the Bible. It has to be rightly divided until a proper conclusion is made.

However, what is curious is that after reaching an appropriate understanding of a hotly debated topic of water baptism versus belief, you went off the deep end and preached a false gospel of idolatry by saying "Eternal salvation is, led by Jesus, believing Jesus is God..." which is not what the Bible says at all.

Let's begin with what the Bible explicitly says. Does the Bible explicitly say to believe that Jesus is the messiah and son of God, but makes no mention of believing his is God, for salvation?
We've been on this topic of Jesus' deity for many many posts.. no need for me to explain again.

I will just say that salvation is by believing on Jesus Christ. This isnt believing on a mortal man.
 
@Jim
So then, you claim that Jesus was saying in John 3:5, "truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born physically and born spiritually, he cannot enter the kingdom of God". Is that about right? Why would you think Jesus would make being born physically a requirement? Who do you think would fail to meet that requirement? That wouldn't even be a restriction for all the rest of the animals. Interesting concept. Stupid I think, but interesting.

I say that the entire exchange with Nicodemus was the spritual side of being born again and that was the emphasis that Jesus was making....

Jn 3:5 -6
5, Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
6, “That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

This seems to definitely be calling attention to the water and Spirit in vs. 5, and flesh and Spirit in vs. 6

5 and 6 followed by

7“Do not be amazed that I said to you, ‘You must be born again.’
8“The wind blows where it wishes and you hear the sound of it, but do not know where it comes from and where it is going; so is everyone who is born of the Spirit.”
He was not instructing Nicodemus about a water baptism at all..... especially when he went on at this point and said
9
Nicodemus said to Him, “How can these things be?”
10Jesus answered and said to him, “Are you the teacher of Israel and do not understand these things?

From a link I have been reading from recently.... I am only posting part as it is extremely long.
But has meaning for this subject. https://afaithfulversion.org/appendices-p/

What Does It Mean to Be “Born Again”?​


It is apparent that the early Latin church fathers made a deliberate alteration of the text in John 3:5 that, to this day, has obscured the true meaning of the phrase “born again.” This alteration has remained a part of the Latin Vulgate and is the basis of the Catholic doctrine of the “sacrament of baptism.” During the Reformation, Protestants rejected the Catholic sacrament and developed a slightly different doctrine regarding “born again.” The teachings of what it means to be “born again” and “born of God” are perhaps some of the most misunderstood teachings of the New Testament. Tragically, this has resulted in millions of false conversions.

The Latin Vulgate: When examining John 3:3-5 in the Latin Vulgate Bible—originally translated by Jerome in 383 AD—one finds a deliberate insertion of the word again” into verse 5, making it read “born again of water.” No Greek manuscript has the word “again” added to the phrase “born of water.” What follows is the Latin Vulgate with an English translation. Note that the Latin syntax must be reordered into English syntax most of the time and punctuation added:

3. Respondit Iesus et dixit ei amen amen dico tibi nisi quis natus fuerit denuo non potest videre regnum Dei

3. Jesus responded and said to him, “Amen, amen, I say to you unless anyone be born anew, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”

4. Dicit ad eum Nicodemus quomodo potest homo nasci cum senex sit numquid potest in ventrem matris suae iterato introire et nasci

4. Nicodemus says to him, “How can a man be born already being old? Can he enter into his own mother’s belly again and be born?”

5. Respondit Iesus amen amen dico tibi nisi quis renatus fuerit ex aqua et Spiritu non potest introire in regnum Dei

5. Jesus answered, “Amen, amen, I say to you unless one is reborn [born again] of water and Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.”

In verse 3 the Latin natus means “born” and denuo means “anew” or “again.” But, denuo is not found in verse 5, which reads differently. Instead, the prefix re has been added to natus, making it read renatus, which means “reborn” or “born again.” This addition makes the phrase read, “born again of water and Spirit.” This phrase is not found in any of the Greek manuscripts, which universally read: γ∈ννηθη ∈ξ υδοτος και πν∈υµατος, correctly translated, “born of water and of spirit.” Moreover, the Greek word ανωθ∈ν anothen “again” or “anew,” found in the Greek text in verse 3, is not found in verse 5.

Since the Greek word ανωθ∈ν anothen does not appear in verse 5 in any Greek manuscript, the Latin text is not an accurate translation from the Greek. Also, the addition of the prefix re to natus changes the entire meaning of verse 5. It is likely that these changes were made in order to substantiate the mistaken belief that when one is baptized, one is “reborn of water,” or “born again of water.” From this doctrine the practice of infant baptism was developed.

The True Scriptural Meaning of “Born Again”
In order to fully comprehend the true scriptural meaning of when one is born again, Jesus’ teachings in John 3:1-12 must be examined. The context of these verses proves that being born again does not mean a conversion or baptismal experience. Rather, it means a literal transformation from flesh to spirit:



A Comparison of Other Early English

Translations of John 3:3, 5

William Tyndale, a Bible scholar and the first man to translate the New Testament from the Greek into English, translated John 3:3, 5 correctly. However, in his other writings, he taught that when one is converted and receives the Holy Spirit, one has been born again. Perhaps he carried this misunderstanding from the Latin Vulgate into his theology, while rendering the correct translation of “born again” and “born anew” in John 3.

Tyndale rendered the Greek words γ∈νναω ανωθ∈ν gennao anothen in John 3:3 as “born from above” and “born anew.” The Greek word γ∈νναω gennao means: Of a man, “to beget, to become a father”; of a woman, “to conceive, to bear.” In some cases, according to the context, gennao does mean “born.” However, gennao predominantly means “begotten” rather than “born.” The Greek word anothen, means: “from above, again, anew” (Arndt & Gingrich, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament).

From The English Hexapla (1841) we can compare Tyndale’s translation of the critical verses in John 3 with five other English translations. It is evident that other translators also had problems interpreting gennao and gennao anothen. The following four versions were translated into English from the Greek Text:

1) Tyndale 1534: “born anew,” verse 3; “born again,” verses 4, 7; “born,” verses 4, 5, and 6.

2) Great Bible, Cramner 1539: “born from above,” verses 3, 7; “born again,” verse 4; “born,” verses 4, 5, and 6.

3) Geneva 1557: “begotten again,” verses 3, 7; “begotten,” verses 4, 5 and 6.


4) KJV 1611: “born again,” verses 3, 7; “born,” verses 4, 5 and 6.

The translators of the 1557 Geneva Bible translated gennao as “begotten.” In many instances, “begotten” is a correct translation of gennao. However, in John 3 “begotten” is an incorrect rendering. The translators of the 1599 Geneva Bible corrected this error to make it read “born” instead of “begotten.”

As I said, this is only a bit from that article. The link above you can check out if you wish.
 
This is the same point that just flew over your head before.

Why would you think that Jesus would say: "among those born of women"? Luke 6:28
Who do you think would fail to be born of women?

You see, the same question applies here.
Jesus could have said, Among men, there is no one greater than John; yet he who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he. That is , He could have made NO reference to childbirth.
So why did Jesus choose to include childbirth by saying "among those born of women"?

The answer is quite clear - because, like John 3, He wanted to compare natural childbirth to spiritual childbirth, so He deliberately mentioned childbirth "among those born of women".

The same is true in John 3.

Since Jesus wanted to speak of being born a 2nd time, He deliberately referred to being born the 1st time. And He compared the two: natural birth - born of flesh or born of water with spiritual birth -born of the spirit.

Yes, interesting, and NOT stupid at all.

What is stupid is referring to the "rest of the animals" as if humans are animals. We are not.
 
We've been on this topic of Jesus' deity for many many posts.. no need for me to explain again.

I will just say that salvation is by believing on Jesus Christ. This isnt believing on a mortal man.
If Jesus died, and he did, then he's a mortal man. Someone had to have died for the sin sacrifice to be valid. Did a mortal man die, did an immortal God die, or did no one die and we are all still in our sins?
 
If Jesus died, and he did, then he's a mortal man. Someone had to have died for the sin sacrifice to be valid. Did a mortal man die, did an immortal God die, or did no one die and we are all still in our sins?
Jesus's body died and then He descended to the lower parts of the earth, set captives free, then returned to His body.

Not a mortal
 
This is the same point that just flew over your head before.

Why would you think that Jesus would say: "among those born of women"? Luke 6:28
Who do you think would fail to be born of women?

You see, the same question applies here.
Jesus could have said, Among men, there is no one greater than John; yet he who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he. That is , He could have made NO reference to childbirth.
So why did Jesus choose to include childbirth by saying "among those born of women"?

The answer is quite clear - because, like John 3, He wanted to compare natural childbirth to spiritual childbirth, so He deliberately mentioned childbirth "among those born of women".

The same is true in John 3.

Since Jesus wanted to speak of being born a 2nd time, He deliberately referred to being born the 1st time. And He compared the two: natural birth - born of flesh or born of water with spiritual birth -born of the spirit.
We were born of the Spirit when, or before, we were physically born. That is when we were made alive physically and spiritually. We received our flesh from the flesh of our parents, and we received our spirits from God. We were spiritually alive. When we sinned, we became spiritually dead in our trespasses and sins. We needed to be reborn spiritually. We clearly did not need to be reborn physically. The whole issue of born again of water and Spirit has to do with the spirit. It has nothing whatsoever to do with the flesh, the physical.

What is stupid is referring to the "rest of the animals" as if humans are animals. We are not.
The creation account in Genesis speaks of animals and humans as being living creatures, i.e., living souls [Hebrew - nephesh]. Man is a living soul with a body and a spirit (Gen 2:7; see also Zech 12:1; Eccl 12:7; Isa 42:5). Animals are living souls (Gen 1:21,24) with flesh and blood but not a spirit.
 
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This is the same point that just flew over your head before.

Why would you think that Jesus would say: "among those born of women"? Luke 6:28
Who do you think would fail to be born of women?

Really? You do not live in 2025. All said in the Holy Book is timeless which covers from when The Spirit was hovering over the waters and God made man and woman to tend the entire earth in Gen 1until the return of our Lord and Savior, Christ Jesus,
perhaps even after.

As to how Jesus told Nick.... He said it in language Nick should have understood but did not.

Now WHY is that, should be your question.

Even Jesus said to him

9“How can this be?” Nicodemus asked.

10“You are Israel’s teacher,” said Jesus, “and you do not understand these things?

John 12 tells us.....
Either it was because
As Isaiah said 40 “He has blinded their eyes and He hardened their heart, so that they would not see with their eyes and perceive with their heart, and be converted and I heal them.”

or as he furthered things with

42 Nevertheless many even of the rulers believed in Him, but because of the Pharisees they were not confessing Him, for fear that they would be put out of the synagogue;
43 for they loved the approval of men rather than the approval of God.

Either of these or a combination fits Nick to a tee.

As to babies being born..... Jesus talked in a way Nick should have understood.... but did not.
You see, the same question applies here.
Jesus could have said, Among men, there is no one greater than John; yet he who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he. That is , He could have made NO reference to childbirth.
So why did Jesus choose to include childbirth by saying "among those born of women"?

The answer is quite clear - because, like John 3, He wanted to compare natural childbirth to spiritual childbirth, so He deliberately mentioned childbirth "among those born of women".

The same is true in John 3.

Since Jesus wanted to speak of being born a 2nd time, He deliberately referred to being born the 1st time. And He compared the two: natural birth - born of flesh or born of water with spiritual birth -born of the spirit.

Yes, interesting, and NOT stupid at all.

What is stupid is referring to the "rest of the animals" as if humans are animals. We are not.
 
What day is your birthday? Most of us not only know the exact day and year, but we and/or our family also celebrate it, sometimes with a special meal or even a party. For many people, they enjoy remembering their family member's and/or friend's birthday and they throw a party and make a big deal of it.

I have heard of some people who, for whatever reason, do not know the day or the year that they were born. That information may have been lost, especially if their family came from another country - sometimes that happens. I don't know, but I wonder if they guess when they were born, choosing a day so they too can celebrate.

The Pharaoh over Joseph celebrated his birthday with a feast for all his servants. Genesis 40:20

The daughter of Herodias danced before Herod on his birthday, and he held a banquet for his nobles and military commanders on that day and had many dinner guests. Matthew 14:6; Mark 6:21

Whether we remember the day or not, one person for sure remembers it - that would be our mom, who gave birth to us. Even if she forgot the date, she remembers the experience of giving birth, or maybe having a C-section. And of course, many fathers, including me, remember the day when each of their children were born. My daughter was actually born on my birthday.

So what's my point? Birthdays are generally a big deal, a new life has begun, and everyone is curious to see what this new person's life will turn out to be.

When John the Baptist was born, they said of him, "What then will this child turn out to be?" Luke 1:66

The point is that physical birthdays are significant - and actually hard to forget, that is especially by all the family, friends and relatives who were there at the time.

Jesus obviously knows all of that, and He chose to make our spiritual birthday also very significant. No wonder that many who were born spiritually, born of the Spirit, born again, know exactly the day that their new birth began. However many have been born again, but don't remember the exact day. I'm in that category, but I do remember the month and the year, and I have guessed that it was around September 20, 1970. Some may not remember even that much, but they have no doubts that it happened at a specific point in their lives.
But even though I can't be certain of the exact day, I remember a monumental change in my life took place on that day. I became a daily Bible reader, and from that day to this day, I have always searched for other Christians to fellowship with. Jesus was the new focus in my life - to obey Him - and still is.

All of this is further evidence that Jesus was purposefully comparing the born again experience to our physical birth in John 3 and in Luke 7:28. In fact He says that our born again experience is greater than our first birth. Luke 7:28

"yet the one who is least in the kingdom of God (i.e. being born again) is greater than he (John the Baptist)."

How could we be greater than John the Baptist? I think Jesus is referring to the fact that being born again is greater than our first birth. Our first birth did not save us - our second birth DID. Apparently John the Baptist did not experience the new birth experience, but we did. Nonetheless we know he was still saved by faith.
This is the same point that just flew over your head before.

Why would you think that Jesus would say: "among those born of women"? Luke 6:28
Who do you think would fail to be born of women?

You see, the same question applies here.
Jesus could have said, Among men, there is no one greater than John; yet he who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he. That is , He could have made NO reference to childbirth.
So why did Jesus choose to include childbirth by saying "among those born of women"?

The answer is quite clear - because, like John 3, He wanted to compare natural childbirth to spiritual childbirth, so He deliberately mentioned childbirth "among those born of women".

The same is true in John 3.

Since Jesus wanted to speak of being born a 2nd time, He deliberately referred to being born the 1st time. And He compared the two: natural birth - born of flesh or born of water with spiritual birth -born of the spirit.

Yes, interesting, and NOT stupid at all.

What is stupid is referring to the "rest of the animals" as if humans are animals. We are not.
Correction: Luke 7:28 not 6:28.

Not only that but we have a greater message than John had, or at least we have a larger record of the words of Jesus, which John apparently did not hear.
 
What day is your birthday? Most of us not only know the exact day and year, but we and/or our family also celebrate it, sometimes with a special meal or even a party. For many people, they enjoy remembering their family member's and/or friend's birthday and they throw a party and make a big deal of it.

I have heard of some people who, for whatever reason, do not know the day or the year that they were born. That information may have been lost, especially if their family came from another country - sometimes that happens. I don't know, but I wonder if they guess when they were born, choosing a day so they too can celebrate.

The Pharaoh over Joseph celebrated his birthday with a feast for all his servants. Genesis 40:20

The daughter of Herodias danced before Herod on his birthday, and he held a banquet for his nobles and military commanders on that day and had many dinner guests. Matthew 14:6; Mark 6:21

Whether we remember the day or not, one person for sure remembers it - that would be our mom, who gave birth to us. Even if she forgot the date, she remembers the experience of giving birth, or maybe having a C-section. And of course, many fathers, including me, remember the day when each of their children were born. My daughter was actually born on my birthday.

So what's my point? Birthdays are generally a big deal, a new life has begun, and everyone is curious to see what this new person's life will turn out to be.

When John the Baptist was born, they said of him, "What then will this child turn out to be?" Luke 1:66

The point is that physical birthdays are significant - and actually hard to forget, that is especially by all the family, friends and relatives who were there at the time.

Jesus obviously knows all of that, and He chose to make our spiritual birthday also very significant. No wonder that many who were born spiritually, born of the Spirit, born again, know exactly the day that their new birth began. However many have been born again, but don't remember the exact day. I'm in that category, but I do remember the month and the year, and I have guessed that it was around September 20, 1970. Some may not remember even that much, but they have no doubts that it happened at a specific point in their lives.
But even though I can't be certain of the exact day, I remember a monumental change in my life took place on that day. I became a daily Bible reader, and from that day to this day, I have always searched for other Christians to fellowship with. Jesus was the new focus in my life - to obey Him - and still is.

All of this is further evidence that Jesus was purposefully comparing the born again experience to our physical birth in John 3 and in Luke 7:28. In fact He says that our born again experience is greater than our first birth. Luke 7:28

"yet the one who is least in the kingdom of God (i.e. being born again) is greater than he (John the Baptist)."

How could we be greater than John the Baptist? I think Jesus is referring to the fact that being born again is greater than our first birth. Our first birth did not save us - our second birth DID. Apparently John the Baptist did not experience the new birth experience, but we did. Nonetheless we know he was still saved by faith.

Correction: Luke 7:28 not 6:28.

Not only that but we have a greater message than John had, or at least we have a larger record of the words of Jesus, which John apparently did not hear.

Key thing for me, is the bible has being that which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that born of the Spirit is spirit:

John 3:6 KJB.. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

Put this with Nicodemus talking about the mother's womb earlier.. which aligns with being born of the flesh..

John 3:4 KJB ..Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?

And I don't see how water baptism fits this passage.
 
Key thing for me, is the bible has being that which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that born of the Spirit is spirit:

John 3:6 KJB.. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

Put this with Nicodemus talking about the mother's womb earlier.. which aligns with being born of the flesh..

John 3:4 KJB ..Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?

And I don't see how water baptism fits this passage.
Jesus' statement in John 3:6 was the answer to Nicodemus' question in John 3:4. Jesus' response was that being born again had nothing to do with physical birth whatsoever; but instead, was all about the spiritual birth. Specifically the spirit needs to be born again. It needs to be born again of water and Spirit.
 
Key thing for me, is the bible has being that which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that born of the Spirit is spirit:

John 3:6 KJB.. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

Put this with Nicodemus talking about the mother's womb earlier.. which aligns with being born of the flesh..

John 3:4 KJB ..Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?

And I don't see how water baptism fits this passage.
You are spot on.
 
Key thing for me, is the bible has being that which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that born of the Spirit is spirit:

John 3:6 KJB.. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

Put this with Nicodemus talking about the mother's womb earlier.. which aligns with being born of the flesh..

John 3:4 KJB ..Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?

And I don't see how water baptism fits this passage.
if it did, Jesus would have said so when nicodemus asked how.

Instead Jesus left it out.

John 3:
10 Jesus answered and said to him, “Are you the teacher of Israel, and do not know these things? 11 Most assuredly, I say to you, We speak what We know and testify what We have seen, and you do not receive Our witness. 12 If I have told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things? 13 No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven. 14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up, 15 that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. 17 For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved.

18 “He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

If baptism was required Jesus would have said so
 
Jesus' statement in John 3:6 was the answer to Nicodemus' question in John 3:4. Jesus' response was that being born again had nothing to do with physical birth whatsoever; but instead, was all about the spiritual birth. Specifically the spirit needs to be born again. It needs to be born again of water and Spirit.
@Jim,

It does not say that. It does not even hint at that. Fact. Flesh is born through water.

5Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I tell you, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and the Spirit
6Flesh is born of flesh, but spirit is born of the Spirit. 7Do not be amazed that I said, ‘You must be born again.’ 8The wind blows where it wishes. You hear its sound, but you do not know where it comes from or where it is going. So it is with everyone born of the Spirit.”

A DIFFERING VIEW: https://afaithfulversion.org/appendices-p/

By all means read the entire at the link thing but definitely scroll down to where I color changed to red....
I had to cut almost all of the copy out due to length but left the titles of the sections I cut so you can go read if so desired.

What Does It Mean to Be “Born Again”?​


It is apparent that the early Latin church fathers made a deliberate alteration of the text in John 3:5 that, to this day, has obscured the true meaning of the phrase “born again.” This alteration has remained a part of the Latin Vulgate and is the basis of the Catholic doctrine of the “sacrament of baptism.” During the Reformation, Protestants rejected the Catholic sacrament and developed a slightly different doctrine regarding “born again.” The teachings of what it means to be “born again” and “born of God” are perhaps some of the most misunderstood teachings of the New Testament. Tragically, this has resulted in millions of false conversions.

The Catholic sacrament of baptism evolved into a religious work while various Protestant versions led to a perverted, lawless grace that rejects Jesus’ teachings that a Christian is required to keep the commandments of God. Compounding these doctrinal errors is the unscriptural belief in the immortality of the soul and the practice of infant baptism.

There is no scriptural example of infants or children being baptized. Jesus Christ was not “christened” nor was He baptized when He was a baby; in fact, He was not baptized until He was about thirty years old. Neither do the New Testament accounts show that John the Baptist or the apostles baptized infants or children. The New Testament teaches that when one repents of his or her sins to God the Father and by faith accepts the sacrifice and blood of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, one must be baptized by full immersion in water (Acts 2:38; 3:19; 8:35-36; Rom. 3:23-25; 4:7-8, 24-25; 5:9-10; 6:1- 6). Repentance and baptism are decisions and commitments that only an adult can make. The true New Testament teachings of what it means to be born again and born of God differ entirely from Catholic or Protestant beliefs.

The Babylonian Pagan Origin of a Counterfeit

“Born Again” Doctrine


Infant Baptism:

How did these anti-scriptural, heathen, pagan practices become part of Christendom?

The Gnostic Connection, the Great Apostasy

and the Early Latin Church Fathers


For the mystery of lawlessness is already working;



The Latin Vulgate:
When examining John 3:3-5 in the Latin Vulgate Bible—originally translated by Jerome in 383 AD—one finds a deliberate insertion of the word “again” into verse 5, making it read “born again of water.” No Greek manuscript has the word “again” added to the phrase “born of water.” What follows is the Latin Vulgate with an English translation. Note that the Latin syntax must be reordered into English syntax most of the time and punctuation added:

3. Respondit Iesus et dixit ei amen amen dico tibi nisi quis natus fuerit denuo non potest videre regnum Dei

3. Jesus responded and said to him, “Amen, amen, I say to you unless anyone be born anew, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”

4. Dicit ad eum Nicodemus quomodo potest homo nasci cum senex sit numquid potest in ventrem matris suae iterato introire et nasci

4. Nicodemus says to him, “How can a man be born already being old? Can he enter into his own mother’s belly again and be born?”

5. Respondit Iesus amen amen dico tibi nisi quis renatus fuerit ex aqua et Spiritu non potest introire in regnum Dei

5. Jesus answered, “Amen, amen, I say to you unless one is reborn [born again] of water and Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.”

In verse 3 the Latin natus means “born” and denuo means “anew” or “again.” But, denuo is not found in verse 5, which reads differently. Instead, the prefix re has been added to natus, making it read renatus, which means “reborn” or “born again.” This addition makes the phrase read, “born again of water and Spirit.” This phrase is not found in any of the Greek manuscripts, which universally read: γ∈ννηθη ∈ξ υδοτος και πν∈υµατος, correctly translated, “born of water and of spirit.” Moreover, the Greek word ανωθ∈ν anothen “again” or “anew,” found in the Greek text in verse 3, is not found in verse 5.

Since the Greek word ανωθ∈ν anothen does not appear in verse 5 in any Greek manuscript, the Latin text is not an accurate translation from the Greek. Also, the addition of the prefix re to natus changes the entire meaning of verse 5. It is likely that these changes were made in order to substantiate the mistaken belief that when one is baptized, one is “reborn of water,” or “born again of water.” From this doctrine the practice of infant baptism was developed.

Coverdale’s Latin and English New Testament:

Erasmus’ Greek-Latin Version of 1535:
With his final version of the Greek Text, Erasmo Roterodamo (Erasmus of Rotterdam) translated the Byzantine Greek into Latin. His purpose was to provide a new uncorrupted Latin version of the New Testament. In his translation, he did not incorporate the mistranslations and deliberate errors of the Latin Vulgate into his Latin translation. Erasmus’ Latin translation from the Greek, with an English translation provided, is as follows:

3. Respondit Iesus, et dixit ei amen amen dico tibi nisi quis natus fuerit esupernis non potest videre regnum Dei

3. Jesus responded and said to him, “Amen, amen, I say to you unless anyone be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”

4. Dicit ad eum Nicodemus: Quomodo potest homo nasci cum sit senex? Num potest in uentrem matris suae iterato introire, ac nasci?

4. Nicodemus says to him, “How can a man be born already being old? Can he enter into his mother’s womb again and be born?”

5. Respondit Iesus amen amen dico tibi nisi quis natus fuerit ex aqua et Spiritu non potest introire in regnum Dei

5. Jesus answered, “Amen, amen, I say to you unless one is born of water and Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.”

Erasmus’ Latin translation from the Greek is correct. In verse 5, he translated the Greek word γ∈ννηθη gennethe as natus, “born” of water, not as the Vulgate renatus, “born again” of water. Erasmus’ translation reveals that the Latin Vulgate was deliberately corrupted.

How Did It All Begin?

How did the false interpretation and teaching of John 3:5 develop into a deliberate mistranslation as found in the Latin Vulgate? The seeds of this teaching are rooted in one of the heresies that the apostle Paul had to address when he wrote to the Corinthians in 56 AD. Some within the Corinthian congregations were claiming that there was no resurrection of the dead, reflecting the pagan belief in the immortality of the soul. To counter this outrageous claim, Paul wrote: “But if Christ is being preached, that He rose from the dead, how is it that some among you are saying that there is no resurrection of the dead? For if there is no resurrection from the dead, neither has Christ been raised. And if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is in vain, and your faith is also in vain. And we are also found to be false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that He raised Christ, Whom He did not raise, if indeed the dead are not raised.

“For if the dead are not raised, neither has Christ been raised. But if Christ has not been raised, your faith is vain; you are still in your sins, and those who have fallen asleep in Christ have then perished. If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all people most miserable. But now Christ has been raised from the dead; He has become the firstfruit of those who have fallen asleep” (I Cor. 15:12-20).

The apostles were witnesses that Jesus Christ was resurrected from the dead, which is the whole foundation of the Gospel of Jesus Christ. Moreover, the Old and New Testaments teach about a resurrection of the dead, which will take place when Jesus Christ returns and establishes the kingdom of God on earth. At that time, the resurrected saints will reign with Him as kings and priests (Dan. 12:2-3; Rev. 5:9-10; 20:6).

While rejecting the truth of the resurrection of the dead, false teachers assumed the Babylonian antiscriptural belief in the immortality of the soul. To this day, many, if not most, within Christendom are taught that at death the soul goes to heaven for doing good or to purgatory or hell for committing various degrees of evil.

The Bible does not teach the immortality of the soul; rather, it reveals, “The soul that sins, it shall die” (Ezek. 18:4, 20). Neither does the Bible teach that when one dies, the soul goes to heaven or hell. Rather, it clearly shows that when one dies, he or she awaits the resurrection of the dead—both of the righteous and the wicked (Dan. 12:2; John 5:25-29; I Cor. 15; Rev. 20:14-15; 21:8).

The belief in the immortality of the soul fueled the doctrine of infant baptism, for if an infant were to die what would happen to its soul? Therefore, this belief necessitated baptism or christening to remove the “stain of original sin” so that if the infant died, its soul would go to heaven; if the infant lived to adulthood, salvation and heaven was assured. From The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, there is the following entry on infant baptism: “Although from the first, baptism was the universal means of entry into the Christian community, the NT contains no specific authority for its administration to infants. But by a tradition at least as old as the 3rd cent., and virtually universal until the Reformation, children born to Christian parents have been baptized in infancy. In the 16th cent. this practice (pseudobaptism) was rejected by the Anabaptists and since the early 17th cent. also by the Baptists and later by the Disciples of Christ.

“Ireneaus (Haer., ii. 33) speaks of Christ as ‘giving salvation to those of every age’… who are ‘regenerated’ … through Him, and expressly includes ‘infants and little children’ … among these. Explicit statements concerning infant baptism are made by Origen, who refers to it as an established custom, which the Church has received from the Apostles (Hom. In Lev., viii. 4, Comm. in Rom., v. 9). In both passages he finds the practice justified by the need which infants, no less than adults, have for liberation from original sin. Opposition to infant baptism (implying the prior existence of the practice) is voiced by Tertullian, who urges (De Bapt., 18) that the baptism of children be deferred (despite Mt. 19. 14) until they can ‘know Christ’. This advocacy of delaying baptism for infants, as well as spiritually immature adults, appears to spring from Tertullian’s ideas of the impossibility or great difficulty of the remission of post-baptismal sin. Such considerations led to a widespread deferment of baptism in the 4th cent., e.g. in the cases of Constantine and of St. Augustine…. On the other hand, by the middle of the 3rd cent. infant baptism was regularly performed, as is attested by Cyprian (Ep. 64), where it is stated to convey remission not only of actual sins but also of original sin. From then onwards evidence for the practice is ample” (The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, p. 701).

“In defending the propriety of Infant Baptism against the Pelagians, he [Augustine] also maintained that one of the chief effects of the Sacrament was the removal of the stain of Original Sin on the soul which bars even the new-born child from the Kingdom of Heaven [i.e., its immortal soul going to heaven], thereby developing earlier teaching from NT times, acc. to which the remission of Actual Sins, the infusion of grace, and the incorporation into the Church had been generally recognized as results of Baptism” (Ibid., p. 127).

Quotations from the Early Latin Church Fathers


St. Justin Martyr

St. Irenaeus

Recognitions of Clement


St. Cyprian of Carthage

Seventh Council of Carthage

St. Ambrose of Milan


From these quotes it is evident that the early Latin Church fathers had a corrupted Latin translation with the altered text of John 3:5, reading renatus instead of natus. Later, Jerome, who translated the Scriptures into Latin (383 AD), also retained the altered version of renatus and renasci in verses 3, 4 and 5, as evidenced by the Latin Vulgate of Coverdale’s day—1538 AD.

A Comparison of Other Early English

Translations of John 3:3, 5

William Tyndale, a Bible scholar and the first man to translate the New Testament from the Greek into English, translated John 3:3, 5 correctly. However, in his other writings, he taught that when one is converted and receives the Holy Spirit, one has been born again. Perhaps he carried this misunderstanding from the Latin Vulgate into his theology, while rendering the correct translation of “born again” and “born anew” in John 3.

Tyndale rendered the Greek words γ∈νναω ανωθ∈ν gennao anothen in John 3:3 as “born from above” and “born anew.” The Greek word γ∈νναω gennao means: Of a man, “to beget, to become a father”; of a woman, “to conceive, to bear.” In some cases, according to the context, gennao does mean “born.” However, gennao predominantly means “begotten” rather than “born.” The Greek word anothen, means: “from above, again, anew” (Arndt & Gingrich, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament).

From The English Hexapla (1841) we can compare Tyndale’s translation of the critical verses in John 3 with five other English translations. It is evident that other translators also had problems interpreting gennao and gennao anothen. The following four versions were translated into English from the Greek Text:

1) Tyndale 1534: “born anew,” verse 3; “born again,” verses 4, 7; “born,” verses 4, 5, and 6.

2) Great Bible, Cramner 1539: “born from above,” verses 3, 7; “born again,” verse 4; “born,” verses 4, 5, and 6.

3) Geneva 1557: “begotten again,” verses 3, 7; “begotten,” verses 4, 5 and 6.


4) KJV 1611: “born again,” verses 3, 7; “born,” verses 4, 5 and 6.

The translators of the 1557 Geneva Bible translated gennao as “begotten.” In many instances, “begotten” is a correct translation of gennao. However, in John 3 “begotten” is an incorrect rendering. The translators of the 1599 Geneva Bible corrected this error to make it read “born” instead of “begotten.”

The following two versions were translated​

1) Wycliffe 1380: “borun ayen,” verses 3, 7; “borun” verses 4 and 6 only; “borun ayen of watir,” verse 5, “borun of spirit” verse 6, and “borun of the spirit” verse 8.

2) Rheims 1582: “born again,” verses 3, 4 and 7; “born,” verses 4 and 6 only; “born again of water,” verse 5, “born of the Spirit” verse 6 and 8.

It is reported that it was Wycliffe who coined the English phrase “born again,” but both Wycliffe and the translators of the Rheims version used the Latin Vulgate for their English versions.

The True Scriptural Meaning of “Born Again”

In order to fully comprehend the true scriptural meaning of when one is born again, Jesus’ teachings in John 3:1-12 must be examined. The context of these verses proves that being born again does not mean a conversion or baptismal experience. Rather, it means a literal transformation from flesh to spirit: “Now there was a man of the Pharisees, Nicodemus by name, a ruler of the Jews. He came to Jesus by night and said to Him, ‘Rabbi, we know that You are a teacher Who has come from God; because no one is able to do the miracles that You are doing, unless God is with him.’

“Jesus answered and said to him, ‘Truly, truly I say to you, unless anyone is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.’ Nicodemus said to Him, ‘How can a man who is old be born? Can he enter his mother’s womb a second time and be born?’ Jesus answered, ‘Truly, truly I say to you, unless anyone has been born of water and of Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. That which has been born of the flesh is flesh; and that which has been born of the Spirit is spirit. Do not be amazed that I said to you, “It is necessary for you to be born again.” The wind blows where it will, and you hear its sound, but you do not know the place from which it comes and the place to which it goes; so also is everyone who has been born of the Spirit.‘ “

“Nicodemus answered and said to Him, ‘How can these things be?’ Jesus answered and said to him, ‘You are a teacher of Israel, and you do not know these things? Truly, truly I say to you, We speak that which We know, and We testify of that which We have seen; but you do not receive Our testimony. If I have told you earthly things, and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things?’ ” (John 3:1-12).

It is clear that Jesus was not talking about a conversion or baptismal experience in this dialogue. Rather, he was comparing one’s physical birth—a fleshly existence—to that of being born anew or born again—to an actual spiritual existence. Jesus describes two births: one of water and one of the spirit, “…unless anyone has been born of water and of Spirit …”(John 3:5). Next, Jesus shows the comparison between a birth of flesh and a birth of the spirit: “That which has been born of the flesh is flesh; and that which has been born of the Spirit is spirit” (John 3:6).
 
if it did, Jesus would have said so when nicodemus asked how.

Instead Jesus left it out.

John 3:
10 Jesus answered and said to him, “Are you the teacher of Israel, and do not know these things? 11 Most assuredly, I say to you, We speak what We know and testify what We have seen, and you do not receive Our witness. 12 If I have told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things? 13 No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven. 14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up, 15 that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. 17 For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved.

18 “He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

If baptism was required Jesus would have said so
Yes. There is quite an explanation in post 1374 that I had to chop apart to get to the key info in the link.

I agree...."If baptism was required Jesus would have said so"
 
@Jim,

It does not say that. It does not even hint at that. Fact. Flesh is born through water.
It is amniotic fluid. It doesn't look like water, it doesn't smell like water. In fact, it often looks like urine, so I am told. It is not water.

There is no reference in all of the Bible to physical birth being referred to as born of water. There is no such reference in all of literature to physical birth as born of water. That is a construct of people like you who refuse to accept the concept of water baptism in soteriology.
 
Yes. There is quite an explanation in post 1374 that I had to chop apart to get to the key info in the link.

I agree...."If baptism was required Jesus would have said so"
He did in Mark 16:16.

And He did also in Matthew 28: 19-20. Baptizing and teaching is how Jesus said to make disciples.
 
He did in Mark 16:16.

And He did also in Matthew 28: 19-20. Baptizing and teaching is how Jesus said to make disciples.
actually Mark 16 is questionable

and in Matt 28, He said make disciples and baptize them.

He did not say make disciples through baptism.

anyway, Please show me where baptism is required in the following verses where Jesus and Paul gave the gospel

John 1: 11: 11 He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him. 12. But AS MANY AS HAVE RECIEVED HIM, to THEM he gave the right to become children, even TO THEM WHO BELIEVE <em>13 </em>who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. (no works)

John 3, FOR God so loved the world he gave his only son that WHOEVER BELIEVES (trusts) in him will NEVER PERISH, and LIVE FOREVER (eternal life) for the son was not sent to judge, but that the world might be saved, he who BELIEVES is NOT CONDEMNED, he who does not believe is condemned already (no works)

John 4: 13 Jesus answered and said to her, “Whoever drinks of this water will thirst again, 14 but whoever drinks of the water that I shall give him will NEVER THIRST. But the water that I shall give him will become in him a fountain of water springing up into EVERLASTING LIFE” (no works)

John 5: 24 “Most assuredly, I say to you, he whoever HEARS MY WORD and BELIEVES IN HIM WHO SENT ME who sent Me HAS ETERNAL LIFE and SHALL NOT COME INTO JUDGMENT but HAS PASSED FROM DEATH TO LIFE (No works)

John 6: 35 And Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life. HE WHO COMES TO ME shall NEVER HUNGER and he who BELIEVES IN ME shall NEVER THIRST (NO WORKS)

John 6: 37: and THE ONE WHO COMES TO ME I WILL BY NO MEANS CAST OUT 38 For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. 39 This is the will of the Father who sent Me, thatof all He has given Me I SHAL LOSE NOTHING, but SHOULD RAISE IT UP ON THE LAST DAY. 40 And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that EVERYONE WHO SEES AND BELIEVES IN HIM MAY HAVE EVERLASTING LIFE AND I WILL (NOT MIGHT) RAISE HIM ON THE LAST DAY (NO WORKS)

John 6: 47 Most assuredly, I say to you, HE WHO BELIEVES IN ME HAS EVERLASTING LIFE. 48 I am the bread of life. 49 Your fathers ate the manna in the wilderness, and are dead. 50 This is the bread which comes down from heaven, that THAT ONE MAY EAT OF IT AND NOT DIE 51 am the living bread which came down from heaven. IF ANYONE EATS THIS BREAD HE WILL LIVE FOREVER (NO WORKS)

John 6: 63 It is the SPIRIT WHO GIVES LIFE ; the flesh profits nothing. THE WORDS THAT I SPEAK to you ARE SPIRIT AND THEY ARE LIFE (SIGNIFYING THE BREAD FROM HEAVEN, THE FLESH AND BOOD ARE THE WORDS JESUS SPOKE. NOT THE PHYSICAL FOOD OR WORKS,)

EPH 1: 13 In Him YOU ALSO TRUSTED , after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also ,HAVING BELIEVED YOU WERE SEALED WITH THE HOLY SPIRIT OF PROMISE 14 who IS THE GAURANTEE OF OUR INHERITANCE until the redemption of the purchased possession, to the praise of His glory.

THE INHERITANCE HE SAID WE ALREADY HAD IN THE 1ST 12 VERSES. (AGAIN, NO WORKS)

eph 2: 4 But God, who is rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, 5 even when we were dead in trespasses,MADE US ALIVE together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), 6 and RAISED US UP TOGETHER , and MADE US SIT TOGETHER IN HEAVENLY PLACES 7 that in the ages to come He might show the exceeding riches of His grace in His kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. 8 For BY GRACE YOU HAVE BEEN SAVED (A COMPLETED ACTION) THROUGH FAITH , (AS MANY AS HAVE RECIEVED) and that NOT OF YOURSELVES ; it IS THE GIFT OF GOD, 9 NOT OF WORKS LEST ANYONE SHOULD BOAST (NO WORKS)

rom 4: 3 For what does the Scripture say? “ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD AND HE ACOUNTED IT TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS.” 4 Now TO HIM WHO WORKS, THE WAGES ARE NOT COUNTED AS GRACE BUT DEBT (Works cancels out grace. and makes it a wage) 5 But TO HIM WHO DOES NOT WORK but BELIEVES ON HIM WHO JUSTIFIES THE UNGOLDY , his HIS FAITH IS ACCOUNTED FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS (AGAIN NO WORKS. PERIOD)

rom 4: 16 Therefore IT IF OF FAITH THAT IT MAY BE ACCORDING TO GRACE , so that THE PROMISE MAY BE SURE TO ALL THE SEED not only to those who are of the law, but also TO THOSE WHO ARE OF THE FAITH OF ABRAHAM , who is the father of us all (AGAIN, NO WORKS, IT IS OF GRACE THROUGH FAITH)

Rom 4: 23 Now it was not written for his sake alone that it was imputed to him, 24 but ALSO FOR US, IT SHALL BE IMPUTED TO US WHO BELIEVE IN HIM WHO RAISED UP JESUS OUR LORD FROM THE DEAD , 25 who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was RAISED BECAUSE OF OUR JUSTIFICATION (AGAIN NO WORKS)

Rom 11: 6 And IF BY GRACE, THAN IT IS NO LONGER OF WORKS, ; otherwise GRACE IS NO LONGER GRACE.But IF IT IS OF WORKS, THEN IT IS NO LONGER OF GRACE. OTHERWISE WORK IS NO LONGER WORK (AS i HAVE SAID NUMEROUS TIME, GRACE + WORKS = WORKS.. GRACE AND WORKS CAN NOT MIX IN THE AREA OF SALVATION. ITS LIKE MIXING OIL AND WATER)

2 Tim 1: 9 who HAS SAVED US (A COMPLETED ACTION) and called us with a holy calling, NOT ACCORDING TO OUR WORKS , but ACCORDING TO HIS OWN PURPOSE AND GRACE which was GIVEN TO US in Christ Jesus BEFORE TIME BEGAN (AGAIN, NO WORKS. BUT GRACE)

Titus 3: 4 But when the kindness and the love of God our Savior toward man appeared, 5 NOT BY WORKS OF RIGHTEOUSNESS (GOOD DEEDS) WHICH WE HAVE DONE , but ACCORDING TO HIS MERCY HE SAVED US through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 that HAVING BEEN JUSTIFIED BY HIS GRACE we should become HEIRS ACCORDING TO THE HOPE OF ETERNAL LIFE
(AGAIN, NO QUESTION HERE. PAUL LEAVES NO QUESTION. NO GOOD DEED CAN SAVE US,. WE ARE SAVED BY GODS MERCY, AND GIVEN THE HOPE OF ETERNAL LIFE. WHICH IS PROMISED BEFORE TIME BEGAN


Titus 1: 2
in HOPE OF ETERNAL LIFE which GOD WHO CAN NOT LIE PROMISED BEFORE TIME BEGAN

this is what our faith is in, the grace and mercy of God. not our deeds.


.
 
actually Mark 16 is questionable

and in Matt 28, He said make disciples and baptize them.

He did not say make disciples through baptism.
You need to revisit your English grammar studies.

In English and in Greek the words baptizing and teaching are participles modifying the verb "make". The "them" in verse 19 does not refer to disciples but to "nations" from the Greek word ethnos which in context is referring to the people of all nations, not disciples. The grammatical construction describes the procedure to be used to make disciples.

It is a similar construction I might use to the contractor I hired to repair my roof, replacing any bad wood and laying down new shingles. Here replacing and laying are again participles modifying the verb repair. They describe the procedure to be used to make the repair.
 
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You need to revisit your English grammar studies.
It would not help

Baptize is not a native english word. It is a Greek word that was transliterated into the english language. So we are required to go to the greek to interpret it. not the english


In English and in Greek the words baptizing and teaching are participles modifying the verb "make". The "them" in verse 19 does not refer to disciples but to "nations" from the Greek word ethnos which in context is referring to the people of all nations, not disciples. The grammatical construction describes the procedure to be used to make disciples.

It is a similar construction I might use to the contractor I hired to repair my roof, replacing any bad wood and laying down new shingles. Here replacing and laying are again participles modifying the verb repair. The describe the procedure to be used to make the repair.
lol. I will stick with the facts. and made the bible agree with itself. even if you are right here (and I question that) you still have the rest of the word to go to.


again, show me the word baptize in all those passages I gave.

I will be waiting patiently
 
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