Christendom's Trinity: Where Did It Come From?

If you have a devil spirit in you like many people also have. Then that spirit is an it. It is not a female or a male and it is not another one of you or now that means there's two of you. Spirits are its.

Now there are two ways that the word "spirit" is used in the Bible and you are confessed because you will not understand that.
Please stick to the topic at hand, and quit blowing smokescreens to disguise or obscure the Truth.
I didn't ask you about a "devil spirit". I asked about Satan. Is Satan an "it"?
 
Please stick to the topic at hand, and quit blowing smokescreens to disguise or obscure the Truth.
I didn't ask you about a "devil spirit". I asked about Satan. Is Satan an "it"?
We are talking about the word "spirit" and the word "logos" and both of them are an it. Now I don't see how I am not sticking to the topic or blowing smokescreens. It's not my fault you do not understand the two different ways the word "spirit" is used in the Bible. And so you confused one way with another way and then tell me I'm blowing smokescreens when I mention them.
 
Did not the OT prophecy though that the Messiah would come in Human flesh, so why would it be wrong for God to be clothedd in Human Flesh?
"A body you have prepared for me" is a phrase in Hebrews 10:5 (NKJV/KJV), where the author quotes Christ speaking to God, highlighting that God prepared a physical body for Jesus (the incarnation) as a perfect, final sacrifice, replacing Old Testament animal sacrifices that were insufficient.
  • Source: This phrase is quoted from the Septuagint (Greek) translation of Psalm 40:6-8.
Yes Jesus had a human body. No it doesn't say God became a human, incarnated, or otherwise.
 
We are talking about the word "spirit" and the word "logos" and both of them are an it. Now I don't see how I am not sticking to the topic or blowing smokescreens. It's not my fault you do not understand the two different ways the word "spirit" is used in the Bible. And so you confused one way with another way and then tell me I'm blowing smokescreens when I mention them.
Answer the question:
IS SATAN AN "IT"?
 
It's a stupid question and does not apply to the subject we are conversing about.
No, it is not, and sure it does. Satan is a spirit. He is an individual spirit, an angel created by God, who came to God and discussed Job in Job 1 and 2. Satan is not an "it", but an individual, specific, masculine being; a he.

Yes, there is a spirit that is defined as "those qualities regarded as forming the definitive or typical elements in the character of a person, nation, or group or in the thought and attitudes of a particular period". And this meaning of the word is used in some places in Scripture. But for the most part, when "spirit" is talked about in Scripture it is referring to, "the nonphysical part of a person which is the seat of emotions and character", and this includes beings which have no inherent physical form (like angels).
 
No, it is not, and sure it does. Satan is a spirit. He is an individual spirit, an angel created by God, who came to God and discussed Job in Job 1 and 2. Satan is not an "it", but an individual, specific, masculine being; a he.

Yes, there is a spirit that is defined as "those qualities regarded as forming the definitive or typical elements in the character of a person, nation, or group or in the thought and attitudes of a particular period". And this meaning of the word is used in some places in Scripture. But for the most part, when "spirit" is talked about in Scripture it is referring to, "the nonphysical part of a person which is the seat of emotions and character", and this includes beings which have no inherent physical form (like angels).
Oh good you too know that the devil is a him. I do too.
 
The Old Testament prophecies about the coming Messiah foretold...

that he would be a human being who would be the offspring of Eve (Genesis 3:15); a descendant of Abraham (Genesis 12:3; 18:18; 22:18); a descendant of Judah (Genesis 49:10; a prophet like Moses (Deuteronomy 18:15); a son of David (2 Samuel 7:12-13; Isaiah 11:1); a king ruling under Yahweh (Psalm 110:1); and a ruler from among the people of Israel (Jeremiah 30:21). That explains why the people were all expecting a human Messiah.

The Old Testament refers to the Messiah as “one like a son of man” and the phrase “son of man” was a Semitic idiom for a human being and it's used that way throughout the Old Testament. The phrase “son of man” also became a title of the Messiah when Daniel referred to him as “one like a son of man” (Daniel 7:13) and that explains why Jesus called himself “the son of man” many times. The New Testament teaches Jesus was a man and Jesus himself said he was “a man who has told you the truth” John 8:40.
 
The Old Testament prophecies about the coming Messiah foretold...

that he would be a human being who would be the offspring of Eve (Genesis 3:15); a descendant of Abraham (Genesis 12:3; 18:18; 22:18); a descendant of Judah (Genesis 49:10; a prophet like Moses (Deuteronomy 18:15); a son of David (2 Samuel 7:12-13; Isaiah 11:1); a king ruling under Yahweh (Psalm 110:1); and a ruler from among the people of Israel (Jeremiah 30:21). That explains why the people were all expecting a human Messiah.
I cannot believe the number of times that an argument that jesus is human has been given. There is no controversy on that, so why does Peterlag not recognize the futility of arguing something already recognized among both Christians and unitarians?

The Old Testament refers to the Messiah as “one like a son of man” and the phrase “son of man” was a Semitic idiom for a human being and it's used that way throughout the Old Testament. The phrase “son of man” also became a title of the Messiah when Daniel referred to him as “one like a son of man” (Daniel 7:13) and that explains why Jesus called himself “the son of man” many times. The New Testament teaches Jesus was a man and Jesus himself said he was “a man who has told you the truth” John 8:40.
Dan 7:13-14 was recognized by the High Priest of Jesus' claim of deity. Why cannot Peterlag accept that?
John 1 shows that the Word has all the nature and attributes of God and then has become flesh. Why does Peterlag reject John 1?
Too much testimony of scripture is being blindly rejected by the unitarians.
 
Then the spirit inside of you is NOT an "it", Satan, the devil, is a "him".
Well, now let's see if we can try to help you once again...

The words “HOLY SPIRIT” in the Bible are primarily used in two very different ways: One way is to refer to God Himself and the other is referring to God’s nature that He gives to people. God is holy and is spirit and therefore “the Holy Spirit” with a capital “H” and a capital “S” is one of the many “names” or designations for God. God gives His holy spirit nature to people as a gift and when HOLY SPIRIT is used that way it should be translated as the “holy spirit” with a lowercase “h” and a lowercase “s” and then that spirit is an it.
 
Well, now let's see if we can try to help you once again...

The words “HOLY SPIRIT” in the Bible are primarily used in two very different ways: One way is to refer to God Himself and the other is referring to God’s nature that He gives to people. God is holy and is spirit and therefore “the Holy Spirit” with a capital “H” and a capital “S” is one of the many “names” or designations for God. God gives His holy spirit nature to people as a gift and when HOLY SPIRIT is used that way it should be translated as the “holy spirit” with a lowercase “h” and a lowercase “s” and then that spirit is an it.
The common error of unitarians is to flatten language so God cannot represent various ideas with single words. This is not unusual for novice interpreters to trip up on. Especially, the scripture does not support some odd spiritist, unitarian interpretation.
 
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