Are Christians Today Required to Keep the Law of Moses?

I agree that the New Covenant repeats 9 of the 10 commandment. But the Sabbath day is not required under the New Covenant, nor is the portion of the commandment to work 6 days, required in the New Covenant.

All of the approximate 613 Laws, including the Ten Commandments became obsolete when Christ was crucified in about 30 A.D.

Since that is the case, from 30 A.D. through today, you can't be under the Law, even if you wanted to be. The requirement of keeping the Law of Moses no longer exists.

Not only that, but God ONLY gave that Law to Israel - never to anyone else.

It was given ONLY TO ISRAEL.
It was in effect from about 1500 B.C. through 30 A.D.

Today, if a Jew or Gentile thinks they are under the Law, they are mistaken. It no longer exists. Sure, the written laws still exist, but the requirement for Jews (since the Law was given ONLY to them) to keep them ended in 30 A.D. Gentiles HAVE NEVER been commanded to keep the Law of Moses.

Today, Christians, whether Jew or Gentile, are commanded to keep the commandments of Jesus and His apostles, NOT the Law of Moses. It is true that there are several Old Covenant laws that are repeated in the New Covenant. When that happens, that law automatically becomes part of the New Covenant. But the vast majority of the 613 Old Covenant laws are not repeated in the New Covenant.

If we, as believers, were under the Law of Moses today, then any Christian who violates, let's say, the Ten Commandments, should be given the death penalty in our churches, or punished by lashes to our back, or made to work to repay something stolen etc. If God was literally our King (over America), as He was over Israel, then all those punishments would still be enforced. They had a Theocracy, a government that answered directly to God as their King. That no longer exists.
Do you understand the justification that accompanies being born-again?

Exactly what is our justification if you know?
 
Yep. Our church membership went down drastically as we started enforcing the Mosaic law on everyone.

Sorry. Just my idea of humor.

I do not understand how people reinstate the Mosaic law. Galatians 3 totally points to the end of its application -- and that was even with treating the gentiles as if they had been under it at all. (It was a bit confusing. They had joined the Messianic sect, which was still sort of a form of Judaism at that time.)
Boy, do you got it all wrong.

The Law was given to the children of Israel. How can you - a Gentile - dictate what is valid for the Jews and what is not? You're on the outside looking in. You don't have any say as to what the Jews practice and what they don't being Gentile. But since the destruction of Israel and their Temple non-Hebrew Gentiles have been dictating to the Jews what is valid and what is not. Then you turn around and attempt to steal their inheritance.

True, Biblical Christianity is moored to Hebrew culture, religion, and people. Once you separate the Law of Moses from Biblical Christianity then it is no longer Christianity but something else, a beast of sorts, for God never commanded the Jews to not obey His Law or that His Law is "abolished" or "obsolete."
 
The Law of faith, which literally is the law of the new testament gospel.

Galatians 6:2,
- bear ye one another's burdens and so fulfill the law of Christ
Romans 3:27,
- where is boasting then, it is excluded by what law(Paul is asking which law? The law of Moses or the new testament law of Christ?

- where is boasting then, it is excluded, by what law, of works(law of Moses) Nay,
- but by the law of faith

The word faith is not personal belief here. Your personal belief is not law.
Gods law that all are under today is His gospel.
That is what Paul said in Romans 3:27,
- where is boasting then, it is excluded, by what law, of works, Nay,
But by the law of the gospel(The Faith)

Next verse, 28
- therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith(new testament gospel)
without the deeds of the law (old testament law of Moses)
Through Moses, God gave His Law to the children of Israel. There is no Scripture that says God made His Law "obsolete." God's Law is still valid to and for the children of Israel.
 
the problem with the law. even the ten commands is people misapply them.

If you bear false witness, it is still sin.

If you commit adultery, it is still sin.

so in this aspect. the ten commands do apply as a factor which exposes our sin.

The problem is they do not show all sin, and as such, are unable to help us understand how to live.

Jesus tried to explain this in one of his great sermons,,

the law says..... but i tell you.....

exposing the law as not able to show you all ways in which any command could be broken. and make us appear we are more righteous than we are (the pharisees saw themselves as more righteous. obeying the letter.. Jesus exposed them

Jesus also then showed them a fact. Be ye perfect as your father in heaven is perfect.

There is the just requirement of the law. as given By Moses in Deut 27: 26 "cursed is the one" as we are reminded by Paul, ' Anyone under the law is under a curse (gal 3) and re-enforced by James,, that if we stumble in one point, we are guilty. James 2: 10)

so while breaking a law is still sin.. The law was fulfilled in Christ. so those who have come to Christ follow a new law 9the law of love or law of christ) which can do what the old law could never do. actually bring us up to maturity
 
Through Moses, God gave His Law to the children of Israel. There is no Scripture that says God made His Law "obsolete." God's Law is still valid to and for the children of Israel.
Romans 10:4,
- for Christ is the  end of the law for righteousness to everyone that believeth

Now you know there are verses that teach the law of Moses has ended.
Christ fulfilled the law meaning He completed its purpose.
Brought to completion.
 
the problem with the law. even the ten commands is people misapply them.

If you bear false witness, it is still sin.

If you commit adultery, it is still sin.

so in this aspect. the ten commands do apply as a factor which exposes our sin.

The problem is they do not show all sin, and as such, are unable to help us understand how to live.

Jesus tried to explain this in one of his great sermons,,

the law says..... but i tell you.....

exposing the law as not able to show you all ways in which any command could be broken. and make us appear we are more righteous than we are (the pharisees saw themselves as more righteous. obeying the letter.. Jesus exposed them

Jesus also then showed them a fact. Be ye perfect as your father in heaven is perfect.

There is the just requirement of the law. as given By Moses in Deut 27: 26 "cursed is the one" as we are reminded by Paul, ' Anyone under the law is under a curse (gal 3) and re-enforced by James,, that if we stumble in one point, we are guilty. James 2: 10)

so while breaking a law is still sin.. The law was fulfilled in Christ. so those who have come to Christ follow a new law 9the law of love or law of christ) which can do what the old law could never do. actually bring us up to maturity
Non-Hebrews are not under the Law. This is a covenant between the God of Abraham and the children of Israel (Jacob, Isaac, Abraham.)
It doesn't apply to you so there's nothing for you to add or say.
 
Non-Hebrews are not under the Law. This is a covenant between the God of Abraham and the children of Israel (Jacob, Isaac, Abraham.)
It doesn't apply to you so there's nothing for you to add or say.
Bearing false witness is still a sin, whether your a jew or a Greek

committing adultery is still a sin, whether your a jew or a Greek.
 
Romans 10:4,
- for Christ is the  end of the law for righteousness to everyone that believeth

Now you know there are verses that teach the law of Moses has ended.
Christ fulfilled the law meaning He completed its purpose.
Brought to completion.
The end of the Law FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS. This means Christ fulfilled the Law for righteousness sake.

If the Law is ended then why do we find it in the text of the New Testament? Once a Jew becomes born-again God puts His Law in their inward parts. What Law is God talking about?
Well, let's look at the text.
It says the Law was nailed to His (Jesus') cross. When Jesus resurrected so did the Law but because now natural Olive tree Israel has now become spiritual Olive tree Israel when Christ dwells in the believer the Law - who is the Holy Spirit - dwells in the believer and deals with the believer from within on their new fleshly tables of their heart (Ezek. 36.)

The Law is spiritual, Saul says in Romans 7. So is a person who becomes born-again by the Spirit.

Jesus himself discusses the Law, most notably in the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5-7). He states that he did not come to abolish the Law but to fulfill it (Matthew 5:17). He often reinterprets the Law, emphasizing the heart and spirit of the law over a strict, literal adherence to the letter. For example, he extends the prohibition against murder to include anger and the prohibition against adultery to include lust.

If the Law is "abolished" as you say, then NO ONE can be saved for the Law leads a person to Christ to be saved as Saul says:

24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Galatians 3:24.

If the Law is "abolished" then we no longer have to have other gods before us and can have many, many, gods before us because there is no Law anymore.
If the Law is "abolished" as you say then we can all bear false witness and steal and kill. Yay!
 
Bearing false witness is still a sin, whether your a jew or a Greek

committing adultery is still a sin, whether your a jew or a Greek.
That's right. Proof that the Jews are still under the Law.
And if you're a Gentile then follow and obey Gentile laws. They're actually copied from God's Laws.
 
The end of the Law FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS. This means Christ fulfilled the Law for righteousness sake.

If the Law is ended then why do we find it in the text of the New Testament? Once a Jew becomes born-again God puts His Law in their inward parts. What Law is God talking about?
Well, let's look at the text.
It says the Law was nailed to His (Jesus') cross. When Jesus resurrected so did the Law but because now natural Olive tree Israel has now become spiritual Olive tree Israel when Christ dwells in the believer the Law - who is the Holy Spirit - dwells in the believer and deals with the believer from within on their new fleshly tables of their heart (Ezek. 36.)

The Law is spiritual, Saul says in Romans 7. So is a person who becomes born-again by the Spirit.

Jesus himself discusses the Law, most notably in the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5-7). He states that he did not come to abolish the Law but to fulfill it (Matthew 5:17). He often reinterprets the Law, emphasizing the heart and spirit of the law over a strict, literal adherence to the letter. For example, he extends the prohibition against murder to include anger and the prohibition against adultery to include lust.

If the Law is "abolished" as you say, then NO ONE can be saved for the Law leads a person to Christ to be saved as Saul says:

24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Galatians 3:24.

If the Law is "abolished" then we no longer have to have other gods before us and can have many, many, gods before us because there is no Law anymore.
If the Law is "abolished" as you say then we can all bear false witness and steal and kill. Yay!
What is the meaning of the word fullfill in Matthew 5:17?
If the Law is "abolished" as you say, then NO ONE can be saved for the Law leads a person to Christ to be saved as Saul says:
Quote Ephesians 2:14-15.
 
The end of the Law FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS. This means Christ fulfilled the Law for righteousness sake.

If the Law is ended then why do we find it in the text of the New Testament? Once a Jew becomes born-again God puts His Law in their inward parts. What Law is God talking about?
Well, let's look at the text.
It says the Law was nailed to His (Jesus') cross. When Jesus resurrected so did the Law but because now natural Olive tree Israel has now become spiritual Olive tree Israel when Christ dwells in the believer the Law - who is the Holy Spirit - dwells in the believer and deals with the believer from within on their new fleshly tables of their heart (Ezek. 36.)

The Law is spiritual, Saul says in Romans 7. So is a person who becomes born-again by the Spirit.

Jesus himself discusses the Law, most notably in the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5-7). He states that he did not come to abolish the Law but to fulfill it (Matthew 5:17). He often reinterprets the Law, emphasizing the heart and spirit of the law over a strict, literal adherence to the letter. For example, he extends the prohibition against murder to include anger and the prohibition against adultery to include lust.

If the Law is "abolished" as you say, then NO ONE can be saved for the Law leads a person to Christ to be saved as Saul says:

24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Galatians 3:24.

If the Law is "abolished" then we no longer have to have other gods before us and can have many, many, gods before us because there is no Law anymore.
If the Law is "abolished" as you say then we can all bear false witness and steal and kill. Yay!
What is the meaning of the word fullfill in Matthew 5:17?

If the Law is "abolished" as you say, then NO ONE can be saved for the Law leads a person to Christ to be saved as Saul says:
Quote Ephesians 2:14-15.
 
What is the meaning of the word fullfill in Matthew 5:17?
God's Law are His requirements for His people to obey and perform. However, because of a sin nature in God's people they sin and fall short in obeying perfectly every aspect of God's Law.
That is, until Jesus Christ is born. Christ does what man failed to do and that is to obey perfectly every aspect of God's Law requiring obedience and performance.
By fulfilling the Law Christ did what God's people were required to do but failed to do because of their sin nature.
Christ fulfilled God's required obedience to His Law in every command.
Quote Ephesians 2:14-15.
11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:
17 And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.
18 For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.
19 Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;
20 And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
21 In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:
22 In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.
Ephesians 2:11–22.

Saul is addressing mixed-race Hebrews who remained in Gentile lands heavily influenced by Greek culture. Back in 722 BC and 586 BC both the ten northern kingdom tribes and the two southern kingdom tribes were conquered first by Assyria then Babylon. In 522 BC Cyrus, king of Babylon allowed the Jews to return to their land but only a remnant returned with Hezekiah, then later with Ezra. The majority of all living Jews remained living in Gentile lands. Approximately 29-35 generations of Jews were born in Gentile lands and were heavily influenced by Greek culture to the point of these Jews losing their Hebrew culture not having a Tabernacle or Temple through which they could practice their religion. As a result many Jews living in Gentile lands lost their Hebrew heritage and grew up like Gentiles they lived among. That's 29-35 generations who assimilated into Gentile and Greek culture. By the time Jesus arrived many male Jews were not circumcised. This is what led to Judaizers who when these "Gentile" Jews were born again wanted to have them circumcised in order that their acquiescence back into Hebrew heritage would be 'complete.'

No Jew or Judaizer would ever seek to circumcise non-Hebrew Gentiles nor to compel them to live under the Law of Moses because all Jews knew that no non-Hebrew Gentiles were ever included in either the Abrahamic or Mosaic Covenants. Thus, these mixed-race Jews who grew up assimilated into Gentile and Greek culture were uncircumcised, they were strangers to their own covenants and foreigners, but once born-again by the Spirit they were again FELLOWCITIZENS with the saints and the household of God. NO non-Hebrew Gentile was ever nor could they ever be FELLOWCITIZENS for they are NOT of the twelve tribes of Israel but are in fact outside the covenants of God. This should not be difficult to understand if you go into reading Saul's words written to Jews and Jewish Christians throughout the Asia Minor locations where Jewish Churches existed due to their being excommunicated from the synagogues because there came a point in time soon after Jews began to be born-again that the testimony of a man named Jesus who was also seen as Messiah and King of Israel was also a man who "hanged on a tree" (cross.) According to the Mosaic Law anyone who "hangs on a tree" (death, mostly through hanging), is cursed. They could not reconcile their King as being also cursed according to the Law of Moses, especially in light of the even that took place in Jewish history with a serpent on a pole, the serpent in Jewish culture being a cursed animal. But if you go into reading Jewish writings by Jewish Christians with a Gentile mindset, then you will see "Gentiles" as non-Hebrew instead of the truth that Jews called mixed-race Jews Samaritan and not Jew the same as Jews called mixed-race Jews "Gentile" and not Jew because these Jews did grow up as Gentiles for over 70 years living in a culture they only knew and that was Gentile/Greek culture having lost their own heritage as Hebrews and saints of God even though they are mixed-race.

The error is on your part to read Jewish writings authored by Jewish Christians with a Gentile-mindset. In the New Testament northern kingdom tribes intermingled with Gentiles after the Assyrian conquest as well as also being the descendants of Manasseh and Ephraim and were called "Samaritan" by Jews because the saw mixed-heritage (Jew-Gentile) offspring as second-class citizens or not citizens at all. It was a prejudice among Jews until Jesus interacted with the Samaritan woman at the well who was a mixed-race Jew but still as she declared truthfully to Jesus that "Jacob was our father." This covers the northern kingdom tribes but where are the southern kingdom tribes of Gentile descent in the New Testament? Does New Testament Scripture exclude mentioning them? Remember, the remnant that returned with Hezekiah were out of Babylon and it was Babylon who conquered the two southern kingdom tribes of the kingdom of Judah (and Benjamin) who were taken captive and later allowed to return to Israel. The tribes of Judah and Benjamin were represented as being in majority among the remnant that did return to the Promised Land. Interesting point is that they chose to call their new establishment of Jews/Hebrews returning to the land promised to Abraham by God and name themselves after the ten northern kingdom tribes - Israel (and not Judah.)

Did God ever make a salvation covenant with any Gentiles? NO. Otherwise, if God did make covenant with Gentiles then we would know this Gentile's name just as we know Abraham's name for the covenant named after him.
Did God ever make covenant with non-Hebrews while in Egypt and the first Passover and later, in the desert at Mount Sinai? NO. Otherwise we would know this Gentile's name.

The Hebrew Scripture identified as the Law, Psalms, and the Prophets consist as thirty-nine "books" that record the history of the Hebrew people and the covenants God made with certain individuals of Hebrews such as Abraham, Moses, David. The first five books called the Pentateuch are called the Torah. Moses records the beginning of man from the Garden going forward called Genesis. Then we have Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy, which record God dealing with Abram and his seed. It covers their entrance into Egypt at the closing chapters of Genesis and pick up the story of the Hebrew people while they are already numbered in the millions living under bondage in Egypt. Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy record their captivity and deliverance by God who later made covenant with the twelve tribes in the desert at the time of the Tabernacle. The various prophets God sends to Israel each record their prophecies and continue the narrative of Israel's history up and until the birth of Jesus. The Psalms are songs written by Jews to and for Hebrew worship and also record many events in Hebrew history.

With the birth of Jesus bar Joseph the narrative of the Hebrew people continues with the gospels. We are STILL dealing with Jews. These are the children of Israel that came back to Israel under Cyrus the Great and the narrative continues with the birth of Israel's Messiah and King. It is the advent of the Holy Spirit of Promise PROMISED TO ISRAEL (Joel) that begins the New Covenant era Israel found itself in and along with the disciples who wrote letters to Jews and Jewish Christians along with Saul, rabbi and Pharisee, who were able with others (Apollos, Aquila and Priscilla, etc.) who are still narrating Jewish history but in letter form and their letters are their attempts at discussion of the New Covenant era of the first century. To all of a sudden transit from Jewish heritage and culture and history to a non-Gentile narrative does damage to God's covenants with the Hebrew people by looking at Hebrew culture, religion, and heritage with a Gentile mindset and interpret Hebrew terms, concepts, and Old Testament types and shadows as being non-Hebrew destroys the Hebrew narrative and replaces it with a Gentile interpretation.

The Hebrew Scripture consists of sixty-six "books" of the Hebrew heritage from Genesis to Revelation. John's Revelation records prophecies having to do with Israel - not Gentiles. The Revelation are prophecies that have to do with the twelve tribes of Israel of things in the future that will come upon Israel, culminating in the return of Israel's Messiah and King.

Those that interpret Hebrew Scripture Genesis to Revelation with a Gentile mindset will continue to interpret incorrectly God's Word to the Hebrew people as now becoming prophecies for the Gentile world, something God is strenuously against.

15 Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him.
16 For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. 1 John 2:15–16.

1 I say the truth in Christ, I lie not, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Ghost,
2 That I have great heaviness and continual sorrow in my heart.
3 For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;
5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.
Romans 9:1–5.
 
If the Law is "abolished" as you say, then NO ONE can be saved for the Law leads a person to Christ to be saved as Saul says:
15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments(10 commandments)contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby
Christ abolished the old law. Fulfilling it by bringing it to completion.
Putting Both jew and gentile in the same body which is the church, The church does not have seperate laws for one ethnic group and laws for another ethnic group.
Colossians 1:18,
- and Christ is the Head of the body, the church...
This is what Paul is teaching in Ephesians 2:14-16,
- for He, Himself is our peace, who has made both(jew and gentle)  ONE and has broken down the middle wall of seperation

What is the middle wall of seperation? Ephesians 2:14.
Paul is using a metaphor about something that was literal.
In Herods Temple of the first century there was a literal stone barrier that seperated,
the Court of the gentiles from the inner courts where Jews only could go.
The wall represents, the Mosiac law ordinances that kept jew and gentile apart.
The social and religious barriers- circumcision, dietary laws, temple restrictions etc.
When Jesus died,
He removed these barriers making ONE NEW MAN, THE CHURCH FROM TWO PEOPLES

Gentiles could worship God but they could not pass that wall.
If a gentile was caught beyond this dividing wall the Jews would put the gentile to death.

Under the new covenant that Christ instituted.
When He died on the cross He tore down this wall.
No longer are jew and gentile seperated.
They all worship together in the same body being the church.

The church only has one law, Galatians 6:2 ; Romans 3:27.
- bear one another's burdens and so fulfill the law of Christ(gospel)
- where is boasting then, it is excluded,
By what law? Of works(old covenant law of Moses) No
But by the law of faith(new covenant Gospel of Christ)

You must ignore scripture when you teach the law was not abolished.
Then teach from the scripture the law which includes the 10 commandments was abolished.
You are not paying attention to the scriptures otherwise you would not make such large mistakes in overlooking passages that contradict the very things you are teaching.

Your teaching is very confusing.
 
No not exactly

If anyone is under the law. they have no hope of eternity with God. Because no one has kept the law.
What kind of flawed reasoning is that?

Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy record that God made covenant with the Hebrew people also known as the children of Jacob (Israel) who are the seed of Isaac who are the seed of Abraham.
The Pentateuch (Torah) does not include non-Hebrews in the Mosaic Covenant.
God gave the Hebrew people His Law to live by. There are no non-Hebrew Gentiles in covenant with God and Scripture records nothing of the sort.
If you want to claim God made covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles then please provide the name of this Gentile and the terms of this covenant from Scripture.
I suggest you accept Scripture as written and not try to change or add things to God's Word that are not there written in the text. To do so is to prove yourself a liar:

6 Add thou not unto his words,
Lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
Proverbs 30:6.

That sin, incidentally, is the same sin committed by Adam and the woman in the Garden when they added "neither shall ye touch it" to what God commanded the man.
 
What kind of flawed reasoning is that?

Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy record that God made covenant with the Hebrew people also known as the children of Jacob (Israel) who are the seed of Isaac who are the seed of Abraham.
The Pentateuch (Torah) does not include non-Hebrews in the Mosaic Covenant.
God gave the Hebrew people His Law to live by. There are no non-Hebrew Gentiles in covenant with God and Scripture records nothing of the sort.
If you want to claim God made covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles then please provide the name of this Gentile and the terms of this covenant from Scripture.
I suggest you accept Scripture as written and not try to change or add things to God's Word that are not there written in the text. To do so is to prove yourself a liar:

6 Add thou not unto his words,
Lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
Proverbs 30:6.

That sin, incidentally, is the same sin committed by Adam and the woman in the Garden when they added "neither shall ye touch it" to what God commanded the man.
Nothing flawed about it.
Give a passage that teaches one can be saved by keeping or binding the law of Moses on new testament Christians?
 
What kind of flawed reasoning is that?
Deuteronomy 27:26
Cursed is the one who does not confirm all the words of this law by observing them.’ “And all the people shall say, ‘Amen!’ ”

Galatians 3:10-14

For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.” But that no one is justified by the law in the sight of God is evident, for “the just shall live by faith


James 2:10
For whoever shall keep the whole law, and yet stumble in one point, he is guilty of all.

Gods requirment of the law is perfection. If you are not perfect. You have not kept the law
 
Christ abolished the old law. Fulfilling it by bringing it to completion.
Putting Both jew and gentile in the same body which is the church, The church does not have seperate laws for one ethnic group and laws for another ethnic group.
Colossians 1:18,
- and Christ is the Head of the body, the church...
This is what Paul is teaching in Ephesians 2:14-16,
- for He, Himself is our peace, who has made both(jew and gentle)  ONE and has broken down the middle wall of seperation
Your error is that you take textbook answers and try to pass them off as sound, Biblical, doctrine.
You read the Hebrew Scriptures authored by Hebrews to and for other Hebrews, such as Moses wrote the Pentateuch, which is a history of the creation of man and from man He makes covenant with a man named "Abram the Hebrew" (Gen. 14:13) and with His Hebrew seed (Gen. 17:7), and read it with a Gentile mindset. This will lead to error.
The original Church are the children of Israel in the desert at the time of Moses when the Tabernacle was built and God gave His Laws - especially the Levitical Law - for sacrifice and worship of God.

25 My praise shall be of thee in the great congregation:
I will pay my vows before them that fear him.
Psalms 22:25.

The "Great Congregation" as everyone knows is a "Church." The word "church" is the Greek: "ekklesia" which means "called out [ones]" and that's exactly what God did when He "called out" his people out of Egypt. It is also used of Jesus when as a baby and escaped to Egypt, God "called out" His Son and returned Him to Israel after the enemies that sought his death were dead.

13 And there assembled at Jerusalem much people to keep the feast of unleavened bread in the second month, a very great congregation. 2 Chronicles 30:13.

It is also fulfilling prophecy in Hosea made of the Son whom God sent into Egypt and later "called [Him] out" after His enemies were dead.
The Prophecy:

11 When Israel was a child, then I loved him,
And called my son out of Egypt.
Hosea 11.

The Fulfillment:
15 And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son. Matthew 2:15.

Thus, on both accounts the word merely means "called out" and God did both, "calling out" the Hebrews out of Egypt and "calling out" His Son out of Egypt when He was a baby under His parents protection. It refers to both the children of Israel and God's Son. Nowhere in the Old Testament does it ever refer to Gentiles. You are adding to the Bible meanings and things not contained in the text..
What is the middle wall of seperation? Ephesians 2:14.
Paul is using a metaphor about something that was literal.
That's confusing. Why not just use the literal for something literal? The "middle wall separation" was the separation and prejudice of the Hebrews against mixed-race Hebrews, such as Samaritans:

9 Then saith the woman of Samaria unto him, How is it that thou, being a Jew, askest drink of me, which am a woman of Samaria? for the Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans. John 4:9.

Every ethnicity in the world looks down upon mixed-race peoples of their race for it divides the loyalty of the person between two people. A person who is born of two Mexican parents is seen by other Mexicans as "bona-fide" while a mixed-race Mexican with a Spanish (Spain) parent is prejudiced against by Mexicans who are full blood being that Spanish Conquistadors invaded and warred with Mexico back in the day. Samaritans were mixed-race Hebrews mostly of the offspring of Joseph who had an Egyptian wife and two recorded sons in Genesis: Manassas and Ephraim. They also intermingled with the ten northern kingdom tribes and were settled in Samaria - both the capital and the region - as Samaria was the capital of the ten northern kingdom tribes of Israel after the death of Solomon.

The first Jewish Temple was built by Solomon at a time when Israel was a united kingdom. The Second Temple built by Herod contained a "Court of the Gentiles" which was for the mixed-race Jews separated for their use after the Assyrian and Babylonian Conquests of 722 and 586 BC, respectively. THIS was the "middle wall separation" referred to by Saul in his letter. During Solomon's reign the people were united in politics and in blood. After the Exile (Diaspora) Herod had an area squared off for use by mixed-race Hebrews with Gentile parentage. Jews saw their mixed-race brethren and neighbors as "second-class" citizens, which is captured by the woman at the well's statement that Jews had no dealings with "Samaritans" (mixed-race Jews.)

Learn your Bible and get rid of those Gentile mindset tjeology books. God made NO COVENANT with non-Hebrew Gentiles. NONE.
In Herods Temple of the first century there was a literal stone barrier that seperated,
the Court of the gentiles from the inner courts where Jews only could go.
The wall represents, the Mosiac law ordinances that kept jew and gentile apart.
The social and religious barriers- circumcision, dietary laws, temple restrictions etc.
When Jesus died,
He removed these barriers making ONE NEW MAN, THE CHURCH FROM TWO PEOPLES
As clarified above, the "Court of the Gentiles" was added by Herod (who was not a king but a Roman-installed puppet.) THIS is the "middle wall separation" that Saul mentions in his letter. It was a reality and remembrance of Israel's conquest and Exile by both the Assyrians and the Babylonians ion 722 and 586 BC, respectively. These mixed-race Jews were mentioned by Jesus as the "other flock"

15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.
16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd. John 10:15–16.

The Old Testament does not ever refer to any Gentiles as "sheep." The "sheep" are always referred to in the OT as Israel - NOT GENTILES. Your theology is tainted by Gentile-induced theology that has no biblical basis for God made no covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles. NONE.
Gentiles could worship God but they could not pass that wall.
If a gentile was caught beyond this dividing wall the Jews would put the gentile to death.
Provide Scripture that says a Gentile "caught beyond this dividing wall" was killed. Provide me an example.
I know you can't so what you are doing is adding to the Bible things not there.
Under the new covenant that Christ instituted.
When He died on the cross He tore down this wall.
No longer are jew and gentile seperated.
They all worship together in the same body being the church.
The New Covenant is described and prophesied by Jeremiah in 31:31-34.
Please read this prophecy and show me where Gentiles are included in this covenant.
The church only has one law, Galatians 6:2 ; Romans 3:27.
- bear one another's burdens and so fulfill the law of Christ(gospel)
- where is boasting then, it is excluded,
By what law? Of works(old covenant law of Moses) No
But by the law of faith(new covenant Gospel of Christ)
The Law of "Christ"" IS the Mosaic Law. Simply put, the word "Christ" is not Jesus' last name but it is the Hebrew word "Messias" translated into Greek "Messias" and into our English "Messiah." It's original meaning is "Anointed" and it is prophetically interpreted and assigned to Israel's prophesied "Anointed One" that was prophesied in the Law as a "Prophet like unto Moses" that should come.
I don't see how you can include non-Hebrew Gentiles into the New Covenant when non-Hebrew Gentiles are not even included in the Abraham and Mosaic Covenants.
But you can prove your point if you post the Scripture that records God making covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles.
You must ignore scripture when you teach the law was not abolished.
Then teach from the scripture the law which includes the 10 commandments was abolished.
You are not paying attention to the scriptures otherwise you would not make such large mistakes in overlooking passages that contradict the very things you are teaching.

Your teaching is very confusing.
The Law is necessary in order for Jews to recognize their Messiah and King for the Law speaks most about who this person is to be so that when He does arrive Israel can identify Him as they did ion the first century when Jesus arrived the first time. This is why Saul says:

23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Galatians 3:22–24.

Saul says this because Moses said most about Israel's future Deliverer, Messiah, and King. And it will again be used in the future by Jews to recognize their King when He return s a second time. It wasn't that Jews rejected Jesus when He came the first time. Israel was deliberately "blinded by God" so that only those who were ordained to know of Him would recognize Him such as His disciples and multitudes of Jews who sat at His feet to learn and followed His relentlessly.

The Law is used by God to lead a person to Christ (cause them to recognize Him so that they can be saved by Him.) The Law doesn't save. But it is used by God to lead a Jew to Christ so that by recognizing their Messiah and King can be saved. God only allowed certain people to recognize Him (Jesus) the first time He came as Jesus says below:

27 All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him. Matthew 11:27.

13 Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
15 For this people’s heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them. Matthew 13:13–15.

17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven. Matthew 16:17.

10 And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?
11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given. Matthew 13:10–11.

10 And when he was alone, they that were about him with the twelve asked of him the parable.
11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables: Mark 4:10–11.

God controls who is to receive salvation and who will not. Salvation is OF THE LORD (Jonah 2:9.)
 
Your error is that you take textbook answers and try to pass them off as sound, Biblical, doctrine.
You read the Hebrew Scriptures authored by Hebrews to and for other Hebrews, such as Moses wrote the Pentateuch, which is a history of the creation of man and from man He makes covenant with a man named "Abram the Hebrew" (Gen. 14:13) and with His Hebrew seed (Gen. 17:7), and read it with a Gentile mindset. This will lead to error.
The original Church are the children of Israel in the desert at the time of Moses when the Tabernacle was built and God gave His Laws - especially the Levitical Law - for sacrifice and worship of God.

25 My praise shall be of thee in the great congregation:
I will pay my vows before them that fear him.
Psalms 22:25.

The "Great Congregation" as everyone knows is a "Church." The word "church" is the Greek: "ekklesia" which means "called out [ones]" and that's exactly what God did when He "called out" his people out of Egypt. It is also used of Jesus when as a baby and escaped to Egypt, God "called out" His Son and returned Him to Israel after the enemies that sought his death were dead.

13 And there assembled at Jerusalem much people to keep the feast of unleavened bread in the second month, a very great congregation. 2 Chronicles 30:13.

It is also fulfilling prophecy in Hosea made of the Son whom God sent into Egypt and later "called [Him] out" after His enemies were dead.
The Prophecy:

11 When Israel was a child, then I loved him,
And called my son out of Egypt.
Hosea 11.

The Fulfillment:
15 And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son. Matthew 2:15.

Thus, on both accounts the word merely means "called out" and God did both, "calling out" the Hebrews out of Egypt and "calling out" His Son out of Egypt when He was a baby under His parents protection. It refers to both the children of Israel and God's Son. Nowhere in the Old Testament does it ever refer to Gentiles. You are adding to the Bible meanings and things not contained in the text..

That's confusing. Why not just use the literal for something literal? The "middle wall separation" was the separation and prejudice of the Hebrews against mixed-race Hebrews, such as Samaritans:

9 Then saith the woman of Samaria unto him, How is it that thou, being a Jew, askest drink of me, which am a woman of Samaria? for the Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans. John 4:9.

Every ethnicity in the world looks down upon mixed-race peoples of their race for it divides the loyalty of the person between two people. A person who is born of two Mexican parents is seen by other Mexicans as "bona-fide" while a mixed-race Mexican with a Spanish (Spain) parent is prejudiced against by Mexicans who are full blood being that Spanish Conquistadors invaded and warred with Mexico back in the day. Samaritans were mixed-race Hebrews mostly of the offspring of Joseph who had an Egyptian wife and two recorded sons in Genesis: Manassas and Ephraim. They also intermingled with the ten northern kingdom tribes and were settled in Samaria - both the capital and the region - as Samaria was the capital of the ten northern kingdom tribes of Israel after the death of Solomon.

The first Jewish Temple was built by Solomon at a time when Israel was a united kingdom. The Second Temple built by Herod contained a "Court of the Gentiles" which was for the mixed-race Jews separated for their use after the Assyrian and Babylonian Conquests of 722 and 586 BC, respectively. THIS was the "middle wall separation" referred to by Saul in his letter. During Solomon's reign the people were united in politics and in blood. After the Exile (Diaspora) Herod had an area squared off for use by mixed-race Hebrews with Gentile parentage. Jews saw their mixed-race brethren and neighbors as "second-class" citizens, which is captured by the woman at the well's statement that Jews had no dealings with "Samaritans" (mixed-race Jews.)

Learn your Bible and get rid of those Gentile mindset tjeology books. God made NO COVENANT with non-Hebrew Gentiles. NONE.

As clarified above, the "Court of the Gentiles" was added by Herod (who was not a king but a Roman-installed puppet.) THIS is the "middle wall separation" that Saul mentions in his letter. It was a reality and remembrance of Israel's conquest and Exile by both the Assyrians and the Babylonians ion 722 and 586 BC, respectively. These mixed-race Jews were mentioned by Jesus as the "other flock"

15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.
16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd. John 10:15–16.

The Old Testament does not ever refer to any Gentiles as "sheep." The "sheep" are always referred to in the OT as Israel - NOT GENTILES. Your theology is tainted by Gentile-induced theology that has no biblical basis for God made no covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles. NONE.

Provide Scripture that says a Gentile "caught beyond this dividing wall" was killed. Provide me an example.
I know you can't so what you are doing is adding to the Bible things not there.

The New Covenant is described and prophesied by Jeremiah in 31:31-34.
Please read this prophecy and show me where Gentiles are included in this covenant.

The Law of "Christ"" IS the Mosaic Law. Simply put, the word "Christ" is not Jesus' last name but it is the Hebrew word "Messias" translated into Greek "Messias" and into our English "Messiah." It's original meaning is "Anointed" and it is prophetically interpreted and assigned to Israel's prophesied "Anointed One" that was prophesied in the Law as a "Prophet like unto Moses" that should come.
I don't see how you can include non-Hebrew Gentiles into the New Covenant when non-Hebrew Gentiles are not even included in the Abraham and Mosaic Covenants.
But you can prove your point if you post the Scripture that records God making covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles.

The Law is necessary in order for Jews to recognize their Messiah and King for the Law speaks most about who this person is to be so that when He does arrive Israel can identify Him as they did ion the first century when Jesus arrived the first time. This is why Saul says:

23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Galatians 3:22–24.

Saul says this because Moses said most about Israel's future Deliverer, Messiah, and King. And it will again be used in the future by Jews to recognize their King when He return s a second time. It wasn't that Jews rejected Jesus when He came the first time. Israel was deliberately "blinded by God" so that only those who were ordained to know of Him would recognize Him such as His disciples and multitudes of Jews who sat at His feet to learn and followed His relentlessly.

The Law is used by God to lead a person to Christ (cause them to recognize Him so that they can be saved by Him.) The Law doesn't save. But it is used by God to lead a Jew to Christ so that by recognizing their Messiah and King can be saved. God only allowed certain people to recognize Him (Jesus) the first time He came as Jesus says below:

27 All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him. Matthew 11:27.

13 Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
15 For this people’s heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them. Matthew 13:13–15.

17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven. Matthew 16:17.

10 And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?
11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given. Matthew 13:10–11.

10 And when he was alone, they that were about him with the twelve asked of him the parable.
11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables: Mark 4:10–11.

God controls who is to receive salvation and who will not. Salvation is OF THE LORD (Jonah 2:9.)
You contradict yourself which shows you are confused.
If the Law is "abolished" as you say, then NO ONE can be saved for the Law leads a person to Christ to be saved as Saul says:
15 Having  abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;

What textbook are you teaching from?
Your error is that you take textbook answers
Exactly, my answers and teaching is textbook. Bible.
 
Nothing flawed about it.
Give a passage that teaches one can be saved by keeping or binding the law of Moses on new testament Christians?
I never said that.
But I will provide a Scripture in which the Law is necessary for a Jew to be born-again:

23 But before faith [the Holy Spirit] came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Galatians 3:22–24.

God said it, I believe it, that settles it.
 
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