jeremiah1five
Well-known member
Two questions:
Question #1: Did the high priest ever go to the Gentiles and offer sacrifices for their sins?
Question #2: Did Jesus come and change the Law?
A. W. Pink on "Kosmos"
- Thread starter jeremiah1five
- Start date
Question #1: Did the high priest ever go to the Gentiles and offer sacrifices for their sins?
Question #2: Did Jesus come and change the Law?
Sorry you just read that into the passage
There is no lexicon, No translation that will affirm your claim
World simply is not used to indicate Hebrews only and you have no support for your view
Kosmos The mass of mankind opposed to God John 17:6, 9, 14; 25; John 12:47; 1 John 5:19
b. of all mankind, but especially of believers, as the object of God’s love J 3:16, 17c; 6:33, 51; 12:47.
ARNDT, W. ET AL., A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature : a translation and adaption of the fourth revised and augmented edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-deutsches Worterbuch zu den Schrift en des Neuen Testaments und der ubrigen urchristlichen Literatur, 446.
Metonymically, the world meaning the inhabitants of the earth, men, mankind (Matt. 5:14; 13:38; John 1:29; 3:16; Rom. 3:6, 19; 1 Cor. 4:13; 2 Cor. 5:19; Heb. 11:7; 2 Pet. 2:5; 1 John 2:2).
Complete word study dictionary
(3) all of humanity (Matt. 5:14; John 3:16; 1 Cor. 4:13); Holman treasury of bible words
the inhabitants of the world: θεατρον εγενηθημεν τω κοσμω και αγγελοις και ανθρωποις, 1 Corinthians 4:9 (Winer's Grammar, 127 (121)); particularly the inhabitants of the earth, men, the human race (first so in Sap. (e.g.10:1)): Matthew 13:38; 18:7; Mark 14:9; John 1:10, 29 (36 L in brackets); 3:16f; 6:33,51; 8:26; 12:47; 13:1; 14:31; 16:28; 17:6,21,23; Romans 3:6,19; 1 Corinthians 1:27f
Thayers Greek English lexicon
(c) by metonymy, the "human race, mankind," e.g., Matt. 5:14; John 1:9 [here "that cometh (RV, 'coming') into the world" is said of Christ, not of "every man;" by His coming into the world He was the light for all men]; John 1:10; John 3:16, 17 (thrice),19; John 4:42, and frequently in Rom. 1 Cor. and 1 John; Vines expository dictionary
a study of κόσμος [world] in the fourth Gospel. The “world” is pictured as mankind in general (John 7:24; 12:19, etc.) and is seen in a twofold relation to Christ. Primarily it denotes those who have rebelled against God (John 17:25) and have followed their “ruler,” Satan (John 12:31; 14:30; 16:11); as such it is dominated by wickedness (John 7:7) and has rejected Jesus (John 1:10) and his disciples (John 15:18; 17:14). On the other hand, however, it is still the object of God’s love (John 3:16) and salvation (John 3:17; 12:41), and Jesus came to provide life for it (John 1:29; 6:33). The disciples are to continue Jesus’ salvific mission to the world (John 17:17-19) Grant Osborne Exegetical notes on Calvinism
Note John use of the term world
The world is contrary to God and those that are his
The world knew not Christ (John 1:10).
The world hates Christ (John 7:7).
The world’s works are evil (John 7:7).
Unsaved Jews were of this world (John 8:23).
Satan is the prince of this world (John 12:31, 14:30, 16:11).
Christ’s own are distinguished from the world (John 13:1, 14:19, 22).
The world cannot receive the Holy Spirit (John 14:17).
The world hates the disciples (John 15:18, 17:14).
The disciples were not of the world (John 15:19, 17:16). The world brings tribulation (John 16:33).
The disciples were out of the World (John 17:6).
Christ prayed not for the world when he prayed for his own (John 17:9).
Christ is not of the world (John 17:16).
The world did not know God John (John 17:25)
Do you want to claim those were speaking of Hebrews
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
I never said "only."
Scripture contradicts you. Christ did NOT pray for the world on non-covenant Gentiles.
In John 17 Jesus makes clear distinction between "them" and "they" who "those" the Father gave the Son, and the "world" of non-covenant, non-elect Gentiles:
8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
9 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.
10 And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them.
Jn 17:7–10.
The high priest does two things: He prays for the people of God in covenant, and offer sacrifices for the people of God in covenant. He DOES NOT pray nor offer sacrifices for the world of non-covenant, non-Hebrew, Gentiles/world.
Jesus Christ as High Priest does two things: He offers Himself as sacrifice for the people of God in covenant and prays for the people of God in covenant. And He does that here.
But He DID NOT pray for the world nor offer Himself for the world. He did for THEM (in covenant Hebrews/Jews.)
So, the world of unbelievers who are NOT in covenant and whom the Father did not give to the Son are without a prayer. The time to pray for the world of Gentiles is right here and now but Jesus does not do that thus proving that He fulfilled the Law and that His sacrifice is for the Hebrew people to whom He was sent and to whom He came to redeem. He came to redeem those under the Law and that means the Jews.
4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Galatians 4:4–5.
Jesus Christ came to redeem those who were under the Law and that means the Hebrew/Jewish people.
He is their Messiah, not Gentiles.
He came and taught the Jews God's Torah, He did not teach Gentiles. Christ offered Himself as sacrifice and prayed for the people of God who were under the Law to redeem THEM not Gentiles for Gentiles were NEVER under the Law.
There it is there in a nutshell.
I think you did
Seems to me you assume
John 17:21 (KJV 1900) — 21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
25 O righteous Father, the world hath not known thee: but I have known thee, and these have known that thou hast sent me
The Holy Bible: King James Version (Electronic Edition of the 1900 Authorized Version.; Bellingham, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc., 2009), Jn 17:25.
7. the world, and everything that belongs to it, appears as that which is hostile to God, i.e. lost in sin, wholly at odds w. anything divine, ruined and depraved........................
The use of κ. in this sense is even further developed in John. The κ. stands in opposition to God 1J 2:15f and hence is incapable of knowing God J 17:25;
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
The world here are the Jews.
24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Mt 15:23–24.
Jesus did not contradict Himself. You believe He did if you take "world" to be Gentiles. He wasn't sent to Gentiles. He was sent to Israel and to Israel He came, Gentile.
But nice try. Learn to study and stop adding to the bible. It shows you as a liar.
And no liar has eternal life in them.
Or do I have to post THAT Scripture, too.
Sorry no
and you just ignored the evidence
There is no lexicon, No translation that will affirm your claim
World simply is not used to indicate Hebrews only and you have no support for your view
Kosmos The mass of mankind opposed to God John 17:6, 9, 14; 25; John 12:47; 1 John 5:19
b. of all mankind, but especially of believers, as the object of God’s love J 3:16, 17c; 6:33, 51; 12:47.
ARNDT, W. ET AL., A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature : a translation and adaption of the fourth revised and augmented edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-deutsches Worterbuch zu den Schrift en des Neuen Testaments und der ubrigen urchristlichen Literatur, 446.
Metonymically, the world meaning the inhabitants of the earth, men, mankind (Matt. 5:14; 13:38; John 1:29; 3:16; Rom. 3:6, 19; 1 Cor. 4:13; 2 Cor. 5:19; Heb. 11:7; 2 Pet. 2:5; 1 John 2:2).
Complete word study dictionary
(3) all of humanity (Matt. 5:14; John 3:16; 1 Cor. 4:13); Holman treasury of bible words
the inhabitants of the world: θεατρον εγενηθημεν τω κοσμω και αγγελοις και ανθρωποις, 1 Corinthians 4:9 (Winer's Grammar, 127 (121)); particularly the inhabitants of the earth, men, the human race (first so in Sap. (e.g.10:1)): Matthew 13:38; 18:7; Mark 14:9; John 1:10, 29 (36 L in brackets); 3:16f; 6:33,51; 8:26; 12:47; 13:1; 14:31; 16:28; 17:6,21,23; Romans 3:6,19; 1 Corinthians 1:27f
Thayers Greek English lexicon
(c) by metonymy, the "human race, mankind," e.g., Matt. 5:14; John 1:9 [here "that cometh (RV, 'coming') into the world" is said of Christ, not of "every man;" by His coming into the world He was the light for all men]; John 1:10; John 3:16, 17 (thrice),19; John 4:42, and frequently in Rom. 1 Cor. and 1 John; Vines expository dictionary
a study of κόσμος [world] in the fourth Gospel. The “world” is pictured as mankind in general (John 7:24; 12:19, etc.) and is seen in a twofold relation to Christ. Primarily it denotes those who have rebelled against God (John 17:25) and have followed their “ruler,” Satan (John 12:31; 14:30; 16:11); as such it is dominated by wickedness (John 7:7) and has rejected Jesus (John 1:10) and his disciples (John 15:18; 17:14). On the other hand, however, it is still the object of God’s love (John 3:16) and salvation (John 3:17; 12:41), and Jesus came to provide life for it (John 1:29; 6:33). The disciples are to continue Jesus’ salvific mission to the world (John 17:17-19) Grant Osborne Exegetical notes on Calvinism
Note John use of the term world
The world is contrary to God and those that are his
The world knew not Christ (John 1:10).
The world hates Christ (John 7:7).
The world’s works are evil (John 7:7).
Unsaved Jews were of this world (John 8:23).
Satan is the prince of this world (John 12:31, 14:30, 16:11).
Christ’s own are distinguished from the world (John 13:1, 14:19, 22).
The world cannot receive the Holy Spirit (John 14:17).
The world hates the disciples (John 15:18, 17:14).
The disciples were not of the world (John 15:19, 17:16). The world brings tribulation (John 16:33).
The disciples were out of the World (John 17:6).
Christ prayed not for the world when he prayed for his own (John 17:9).
Christ is not of the world (John 17:16).
The world did not know God John (John 17:25)
Do you want to claim those were speaking of Hebrews
until
John 12:32 (KJV 1900) — 32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.
Sorry you have no idea on how to study the bible. Your interpretation are driven by your obvious biases'
John 12:32 (KJV 1900) — 32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.
You just hate the idea Christ was given for all men
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
"Kosmos" is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17: 24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth." is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17: 24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth."
"Kosmos" is used of the earth: John 13:1; Eph. 1:4, etc., etc.- "When Jesus knew that his hour was come that He should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved His own which were in the world He loved them unto the end." "Depart out of this world" signifies, leave this earth. "According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world." This expression signifies, before the earth was founded-compare Job 38:4 etc.
"Kosmos" is used of the world-system: John 12:31 etc. "Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the Prince of this world be cast out"- compare Matt. 4:8 and I John 5:19, R. V.
"Kosmos" is used of the whole human race: Rom. 3: 19, etc.-"Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God."
"Kosmos" is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom. 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view. is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom. 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view.
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"Kosmos" is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place. is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place.
Thus it will be seen that "kosmos" has at least seven clearly defined different meanings in the New Testament. It may be asked, Has then God used a word thus to confuse and confound those who read the Scriptures? We answer, No! nor has He written His Word for lazy people who are too dilatory, or too busy with the things of this world, or, like Martha, so much occupied with "serving," they have no time and no heart to "search" and "study" Holy Writ! Should it be asked further, But how is a searcher of the Scriptures to know which of the above meanings the term "world" has in any given passage? The answer is: This may be ascertained by a careful study of the context, by diligently noting what is predicated of "the world" in each passage, and by prayer fully consulting other parallel passages to the one being studied. The principal subject of John 3:16 is Christ as the Gift of God.
The first clause tells us what moved God to "give" His only begotten Son, and that was His great "love;" the second clause informs us for whom God "gave" His Son, and that is for, "whosoever (or, better, 'every one') believeth;" while the last clause makes known why God "gave" His Son (His purpose), and that is, that everyone that believeth "should not perish but have everlasting life." That "the world" in John 3:16 refers to the world of believers (God's elect), in contradistinction from "the world of the ungodly" (2 Pet. 2:5), is established, unequivocally established, by a comparison of the other passages which speak of God's "love." "God commendeth His love toward US"-the saints, Rom. 5:8. "Whom the Lord loveth He chasteneth"-every son, Heb. 12:6. "We love Him, because He first loved US"-believers, I John 4:19. The wicked God "pities" (see Matt. 18:33). Unto the unthankful and evil God is "kind" (see Luke 6:35). The vessels of wrath He endures "with much long-suffering" (see Rom. 9:22). But "His own" God "loves"!!
Then the world cannot be saved for the Holy Spirit is necessary for salvation.
The world of unbelievers hates Christ and believers.
The world of believers are supposed to love brethren ONLY.
They had to start somewhere and that somewhere was the world. They were born into the world. Ah, but they were not of the world.
God brings tribulation.
The time to pray for the world was right there in John 17. But Christ didn't pray for the world. This means the world is without a prayer and will not be saved.
The world of Gentiles did not know God at all, even when God separated Abraham and his seed from the world all the way to the last day. Millions of Gentiles are born and die without salvation. Millions of Gentiles at the time of Moses and on to Joshua and on to the time of David even after Jesus were born and died without God and do you want to know why? Because they were not in covenant and no sacrifices were made for them.
There is such a thing as the world of Hebrew and the world of Gentiles.
So, world does not always mean unbelievers.
When the serpent was placed on the pole during Moses' time did Moses also take the serpent on the pole to the Gentiles and do the same thing, to ask them if they want to live to look upon it?
NO! So, if the original context was to the children of Israel ONLY then so also is Jesus being lifted up was to draw all HEBREW 'men' to Him.
God had covenant with the children of Israel in the desert at the time of the Tabernacle. God had no covenant with Gentiles. When Moses put the serpent on a pole and commanded the children of Israel to look upon it and live Moses did not go to the Gentiles and do the same with them. So, to say that Jesus being lifted up on a pole/tree is for ALL MANKIND is adding to the bible and is a lie for the original event took place among the children of Israel NOT "ALL MANKIND."
Stop adding to the bible.
Sorry you have no lexical support for that claim
John 1:29 The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!
John 3:16 “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.
John 6:33 For the bread of God is he who comes down from heaven and gives life to the world.”
John 12:47 If anyone hears my words and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I did not come to judge the world but to save the world.
1Cor. 4:9 For I think that God has exhibited us apostles as last of all, like men sentenced to death, because we have become a spectacle to the world, to angels, and to men.
2Cor. 5:19 that is, in Christ God was reconciling the world to himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting to us the message of reconciliation.
Kosmos The mass of mankind opposed to God John 17:6, 9, 14; 25; John 12:47; 1 John 5:19
b. of all mankind, but especially of believers, as the object of God’s love J 3:16, 17c; 6:33, 51; 12:47.
ARNDT, W. ET AL., A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature : a translation and adaption of the fourth revised and augmented edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-deutsches Worterbuch zu den Schrift en des Neuen Testaments und der ubrigen urchristlichen Literatur, 446.
Metonymically, the world meaning the inhabitants of the earth, men, mankind (Matt. 5:14; 13:38; John 1:29; 3:16; Rom. 3:6, 19; 1 Cor. 4:13; 2 Cor. 5:19; Heb. 11:7; 2 Pet. 2:5; 1 John 2:2).
(3) all of humanity (Matt. 5:14; John 3:16; 1 Cor. 4:13); Holman treasury of bible words
the inhabitants of the world: θεατρον εγενηθημεν τω κοσμω και αγγελοις και ανθρωποις, 1 Corinthians 4:9 (Winer's Grammar, 127 (121)); particularly the inhabitants of the earth, men, the human race (first so in Sap. (e.g.10:1)): Matthew 13:38; 18:7; Mark 14:9; John 1:10, 29 (36 L in brackets); 3:16f; 6:33,51; 8:26; 12:47; 13:1; 14:31; 16:28; 17:6,21,23; Romans 3:6,19; 1 Corinthians 1:27f
Thayers Greek English lexicon
(c) by metonymy, the "human race, mankind," e.g., Matt. 5:14; John 1:9 [here "that cometh (RV, 'coming') into the world" is said of Christ, not of "every man;" by His coming into the world He was the light for all men]; John 1:10; John 3:16, 17 (thrice),19; John 4:42, and frequently in Rom. 1 Cor. and 1 John; Vines expository dictionary
It is only your theology driving your claim
Rather you stop twisting scripture and comments to support your views
The point of quoting the uplifted servant was to show atonement was made for all afflicted
It was only Jews who were afflicted by the serpents bite
However, it is clear throughout the bible that Christ died for gentiles as well as Jews by the offering of the gospel to them
Only your dislike of gentiles causes you to miss the obvious
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
If it is for the world which you take as Gentiles then Jesus changed the Law.
That is heresy. But Jesus didn't change the Law. The error is your taking the word world as Gentiles and the context doesn't say that. Jesus was sent to the lost sheep of the House of Israel, so the word "world" is in context to those Jesus was sent to in accordance with the covenants and the Law.
Yes, the world of Hebrews.
Yes, to the world of Hebrews.
Speaking to the Hebrews the word "world" is in context to the subject and that is the Hebrews.
To the world of Hebrews. Gentiles couldn't care less about Saul's appearance.
Saul is speaking to Jewish Christians at Corinth. You have to remember the word "world" is to be understood in context to the subject. You're not doing that. You are taking the English understanding of "world" to mean everyone on the planet, and this is not so. The context determines its usage. And since the word is "kosmos" in Greek, then understand it as a Greek would and not an Englishman.
I tire of your ignorance. We're dealing with a Greek word, but you want to understand it as an English word used today of the planet. This is your failing, your Gentile-mindset failing.
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
Jesus said Himself He was sent to the lost sheep of the House of Israel, not the house of Gentiles.
By your interpretation you make Jesus as the Lamb of God who was sent to save the covenant people of Israel and make Him change the Law in which the sacrifices were for the children of Israel and fiorce Jesus to sacrifice Himself for Gentiles.
IF you can show through Scripture the atonement made yearly for the children of Israel was also made separately for the Gentiles then I'll accept your position. But the fact remains the sacrifices were made yearly under the Law for the children of Israel. Thus, Jesus was sent to die for the sins of the children of Israel as lamb of God for that purpose.
Pssst...there are no such Scripture the sacrifices under the Law was made for the sins of Gentiles.
And since Jesus was prophesied to and for Israel, Jesus died for the sins of the covenant people of God who are called ISRAEL.
Jesus was not sent to the lost goats of the house of Gentiles.
Believe the bible, not your flawed Gentile-reasoning heresy.
The bible does not end at the gospels
Ephesians 1:9–10 (ESV) — 9 making known to us the mystery of his will, according to his purpose, which he set forth in Christ 10 as a plan for the fullness of time, to unite all things in him, things in heaven and things on earth.
Ephesians 3:4–6 (ESV) — 4 When you read this, you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ, 5 which was not made known to the sons of men in other generations as it has now been revealed to his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit. 6 This mystery is that the Gentiles are fellow heirs, members of the same body, and partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel.
Colossians 1:25–27 (ESV) — 25 of which I became a minister according to the stewardship from God that was given to me for you, to make the word of God fully known, 26 the mystery hidden for ages and generations but now revealed to his saints. 27 To them God chose to make known how great among the Gentiles are the riches of the glory of this mystery, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory.
In hatred you are fighting against the very God you proclaim
As I stated you have no lexical support
The ignorance here is yours, as lexicon after lexicon shows
as well as scripture which never limit the sacrifice of Christ to Israel alone
1 Timothy 2:4–6
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
John 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
2 Corinthians 5:14–15
14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
John 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
1 John 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
2 Corinthians 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
The Holy Spirit is not unable to convey what he means as you appear to imagine
All he had to inspire was Christ died for Israelites alone
but he never does
Not one verse in the entire bible suggests any such thing
such a thought is born out of your hatred and is contrary to the plan of God
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
Either Saul is adding to the bible for he of all people and as a rabbi who studied the Scripture knows that only Hebrews are in covenant with God and wouldn't add to the bible, or it's your interpretation that is in error.
Methinks it's your interpretation.
Another thing I find is that Gentiles always - and I mean ALWAYS - use the NT to try to prove Gentile-inclusion in the Hebrew covenants and don't like to go to the original passages where the covenants are made.
God made covenant with Abram the HEBREW. Sarah, Abram's cousin and Abram had Hebrew children and the covenant is with Hebrews and their offspring. Here's the Scripture. Notice there is no type nor shadow of Gentiles in this covenant and if there is no Old Testament precedent then there's no New Testament reality.
Keep trying. You look foolish trying.
Take note that Saul is talking about members of the BODY (of Christ) NOT THE COVENANT and uses the term CHRIST before Jesus and I've tried to direct you to this fact, and you don't get it.
So, I'll leave you to your ignorance.
So, what is the promise of CHRIST (Heb. "Messias" = "anointing")?
And I see you like to see the word "Gentiles" and always say these are uncircumcised, non-Hebrew, non-covenant Roman, Scythian, Barbarian, or Greek are the Gentiles it is referring to and that's not correct.
The Gentiles that heard the good news about Israel's Messiah were proselytes and God-Fearers.
So, I'll leave you to you error since you don't want to let the Word of God and Hebrew history tell you what to believe. You'd rather tell the Word of God what to say and I am weary of repeating myself.
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
The world of Hebrews is a good usage of the word world just as the world of Gentiles.
So, I'll leave you to your ignorance.
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
Context.
Scripture cannot be broken.
The high priest under the Law sacrificed animals to atone for the sins of the children of Israel. Jesus did not come to change or destroy the Law because He can't. He wouldn't. He didn't.
So, when the Lamb of God came, lived under the Law, and died under the Law as with the animal sacrifice under the Law God's Lamb was sacrificed to atone for the sins of the children of Israel. It's their covenant and Jehovah is their God, and Logos is their Messiah, Deliverer, Redeemer, King.
Fulfilling the Law means obeying the Law and Jesus Christ did this perfectly, and completely ("It is finished".)
Saul teaches this very thing:
4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we (JEWS) might receive the adoption of sons.
Gal. 4:4–5.
The Word of God.
Sorry I have no problem with Jews being redeemed but you cannot turn around and say no gentiles are redeemed
World has no meaning of Jews only
Sorry such a phrase never appears in scripture
You are dependent upon extra biblical claims
https://berean-apologetics.community.forum/threads/a-w-pink-on-kosmos.1581/post-75031
https://berean-apologetics.community.forum/threads/a-w-pink-on-kosmos.1581/post-75030
jeremiah1five
Well-known member
There are no non-Hebrew Gentiles in the three Hebrew covenants (Abrahamic, Mosaic, New) in the Hebrew Scripture of Law, Psalms, and Prophets.
I keep asking you to show me non-Hebrew Gentiles in the passages where these covenants were entered between God and the Hebrew people and you CANNOT do it.
NO ONE CAN.
Jesus did. he sacrificed himself for all men
Again scripture
Ephesians 2:13–19 (KJV 1900) — 13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. 14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; 15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; 16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: 17 And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh. 18 For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father. 19 Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;
Galatians 3:29 (KJV 1900) — 29 And if ye be Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.
