A. W. Pink on "Kosmos"

[jeremiah1five]

It may appear to some of our readers that the exposition we have given of John 3:16 in the chapter on "Difficulties and Objections" is a forced and unnatural one, inasmuch as our definition of the term "world" seems to be out of harmony with the meaning and scope of this word in other passages, where, to supply the world of believers (God's elect) as a definition of "world" would make no sense. Many have said to us, "Surely, 'world' means world, that is, you, me, and everybody." In reply we would say: We know from experience how difficult it is to set aside the "traditions of men" and come to a passage which we have heard explained in a certain way scores of times, and study it carefully for ourselves without bias Nevertheless, this is essential if we would learn the mind of God.

Many people suppose they already know the simple meaning of John 3:16, and therefore they conclude that no diligent study is required of them to discover the precise teaching of this verse. Needless to say, such an attitude shuts out any further light which they otherwise might obtain on the passage. Yet, if anyone will take a Concordance and read carefully the various passages in which the term "world" (as a translation of "kosmos") occurs, he will quickly perceive that to ascertain the precise meaning of, the word "world" in any given passage is not nearly so easy as is popularly supposed. The word "kosmos," and its English equivalent "world," is not used with a uniform significance in the New Testament. Very far from it. It is used in quite a number of different ways. Below we will refer to a few passages where this term occurs, suggesting a tentative definition in each case:

"Kosmos" is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17: 24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth." is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17: 24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth."

"Kosmos" is used of the earth: John 13:1; Eph. 1:4, etc., etc.- "When Jesus knew that his hour was come that He should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved His own which were in the world He loved them unto the end." "Depart out of this world" signifies, leave this earth. "According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world." This expression signifies, before the earth was founded-compare Job 38:4 etc.

"Kosmos" is used of the world-system: John 12:31 etc. "Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the Prince of this world be cast out"- compare Matt. 4:8 and I John 5:19, R. V.

"Kosmos" is used of the whole human race: Rom. 3: 19, etc.-"Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God."

"Kosmos" is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom. 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view. is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom. 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view.

"Kosmos" is used of Gentiles in contrast from Jews: Rom. 11:12 etc. "Now if the fall of them (Israel) be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them (Israel) the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their (Israel's) fulness." Note how the first clause in italics is defined by the latter clause placed in italics. Here, again, "the world" cannot signify all humanity for it excludes Israel!​

"Kosmos" is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place. is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place.

Thus it will be seen that "kosmos" has at least seven clearly defined different meanings in the New Testament. It may be asked, Has then God used a word thus to confuse and confound those who read the Scriptures? We answer, No! nor has He written His Word for lazy people who are too dilatory, or too busy with the things of this world, or, like Martha, so much occupied with "serving," they have no time and no heart to "search" and "study" Holy Writ! Should it be asked further, But how is a searcher of the Scriptures to know which of the above meanings the term "world" has in any given passage? The answer is: This may be ascertained by a careful study of the context, by diligently noting what is predicated of "the world" in each passage, and by prayer fully consulting other parallel passages to the one being studied. The principal subject of John 3:16 is Christ as the Gift of God.

The first clause tells us what moved God to "give" His only begotten Son, and that was His great "love;" the second clause informs us for whom God "gave" His Son, and that is for, "whosoever (or, better, 'every one') believeth;" while the last clause makes known why God "gave" His Son (His purpose), and that is, that everyone that believeth "should not perish but have everlasting life." That "the world" in John 3:16 refers to the world of believers (God's elect), in contradistinction from "the world of the ungodly" (2 Pet. 2:5), is established, unequivocally established, by a comparison of the other passages which speak of God's "love." "God commendeth His love toward US"-the saints, Rom. 5:8. "Whom the Lord loveth He chasteneth"-every son, Heb. 12:6. "We love Him, because He first loved US"-believers, I John 4:19. The wicked God "pities" (see Matt. 18:33). Unto the unthankful and evil God is "kind" (see Luke 6:35). The vessels of wrath He endures "with much long-suffering" (see Rom. 9:22). But "His own" God "loves"!!

 

[civic]

I will present the other side of the argument.

The Golden Rule of Interpretation

“When the plain sense of Scripture makes common sense, seek no other sense; therefore, take every word at its primary, ordinary, usual, literal meaning unless the facts of the immediate context, studied in the light of related passages and axiomatic and fundamental truths, indicate clearly otherwise.”–Dr. David L. Cooper (1886-1965),founder of The Biblical Research Society

These Greek Lexicons affirm world means all, everyone, the whole world without exception.

Thayers

Cosmos: the inhabitants of the

5. world: θέατρον ἐγενήθημεν τῷ κόσμῳ καί ἀγγέλοις καί ἀνθρώποις, 1 Corinthians 4:9 (Winers Grammar, 127 (121)); particularly the inhabitants of the earth, men, the human race (first so in Sap. (e. g. )): Matthew 13:38; Matthew 18:7; Mark 14:9; John 1:10, 29 ( L in brackets); ; Romans 3:6, 19; 1 Corinthians 1:27f (cf. Winer's Grammar, 189 (178)); ; 2 Corinthians 5:19; James 2:5 (cf. Winer's Grammar, as above); 1 John 2:2 (cf. Winer's Grammar, 577 (536)); ἀρχαῖος κόσμος, of the antediluvians, 2 Peter 2:5; γέννασθαι εἰς τόν κόσμον, John 16:21; ἔρχεσθαι εἰς τόν κόσμον (John 9:39) and εἰς τόν κόσμον τοῦτον, to make its appearance or come into existence among men, spoken of the light which in Christ shone upon men, John 1:9; John 3:19, cf. 12:46; of the Messiah, John 6:14; John 11:27; of Jesus as the Messiah, John 9:39; John 16:28; John 18:37; 1 Timothy 1:15; also ἐισέρχεσθαι εἰς τόν κόσμον, Hebrews 10:5; of false teachers, 2 John 1:7 (yet here L T Tr WH ἐξέρχεσθαι εἰς τόν κόσμον; (so all texts in 1 John 4:1)); to invade, of evils coming into existence among men and beginning to exert their power: of sin and death, Romans 5:12 (of death, Wis. 2:24; Clement of Rome, 1 Cor. 3, 4 [ET]; of idolatry, Wis. 14:14). ἀποστέλλειν τινα εἰς τόν κόσμον, John 3:17; John 10:36; John 17:18; 1 John 4:9; φῶς τοῦ κόσμου, Matthew 5:14; John 8:12; John 9:5; σωτήρ τοῦ κόσμου, John 4:42; 1 John 4:14 (σωτηρία τοῦ κόσμου Wis. 6:26 (25); ἐλπίς τοῦ κόσμου, Wis. 14:6; πρωτόπλαστος πατήρ τοῦ κόσμου, of Adam, Wis. 10:1); στοιχεῖα τοῦ κόσμου (see στοιχεῖον, 3 and 4); ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ, among men, John 16:33; John 17:13; Ephesians 2:12; ἐν κόσμῳ (see Winer's Grammar, 123 (117)), 1 Timothy 3:16; εἶναι ἐν τῷ κόσμου, to dwell among men, John 1:10; John 9:5; John 17:11, 12 R G; 1 John 4:3; εἶναι ἐν κόσμῳ, to be present, Romans 5:13; ἐξελθεῖν, ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου, to withdraw from human society and seek an abode outside of it, 1 Corinthians 5:10; ἀναστρέφεσθαι ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ, to behave oneself, 2 Corinthians 1:12; likewise εἶναι ἐν τῷ κόσμου τούτῳ, 1 John 4:17.

6. "the ungodly multitude; the whole mass of men alienated from God, and therefore hostile to the cause of Christ" (cf. Winer's Grammar, 26): John 7:7; John 14:27 (); ; 1 Corinthians 1:21; 1 Corinthians 6:2; 1 Corinthians 11:32; 2 Corinthians 7:10; James 1:27; 1 Peter 5:9; 2 Peter 1:4; 2 Peter 2:20; 1 John 3:1, 13; 1 John 4:5; 1 John 5:19; of the aggregate of ungodly and wicked men in O. T. times, Hebrews 11:38; in Noah's time, ibid. 7; with οὗτος added, Ephesians 2:2 (on which see αἰών, 3); εἶναι ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου and ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου τούτου (see εἰμί, V. 3rd.), John 8:23; John 15:19; John 17:14, 16; 1 John 4:5; λαλεῖν ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου, to speak in accordance with the world's character and mode of thinking, 1 John 4:5; ὁ ἄρχων τοῦ κόσμου τούτου, i. e. the devil, John 12:31; John 14:30; John 16:11; ὁ ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ he that is operative in the world (also of the devil), 1 John 4:4; τό πνεῦμα τοῦ κόσμου

b. of all mankind, but especially of believers, as the object of God’s love J 3:16, 17c; 6:33, 51; 12:47.

William Arndt et al., A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature : A Translation and Adaption of the Fourth Revised and Augmented Edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-Deutsches Worterbuch Zu Den Schrift En Des Neuen Testaments Und Der Ubrigen Urchristlichen Literatur (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1979), 446.


1 John 2:2-He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.

1 John 2:15-17-Do not love the world or anything in the world. If anyone loves the world, love for the Father is not in them. 16 For everything in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life—comes not from the Father but from the world. 17 The world and its desires pass away, but whoever does the will of God lives forever.

1 John 4:3-6- but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming and even now is already in the world.4 You, dear children, are from God and have overcome them, because the one who is in you is greater than the one who is in the world. 5 They are from the world and therefore speak from the viewpoint of the world, and the world listens to them. 6 We are from God, and whoever knows God listens to us; but whoever is not from God does not listen to us. This is how we recognize the Spirit of truth and the spirit of falsehood.

1 John 4:14- And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world

1 John 5:19- We know that we are from God, and the whole world lies in the power of the evil one.

Now its very clear from the Lexicon definition and in 1 John that the cosmos/world does not mean Gods elect (that is Calvinism) not what John means in his epistle. It clearly means everyone with no exceptions in this world, all of its inhabitants who make up the ungodly multitude. It is clearly all inclusive of everyone, all, the entire world that lies under the evil one in opposition to God from the context of 1 John.

Only someone with a closed mind trapped in their dogma/doctrine would argue otherwise resulting in eisegesis( reading their own ideas into the text) rather than exegesis ( letting the text dictate ones ideas ).

We see above that the whole world lies under the evil one and its that same identical whole world in 1 John 2:2 that Jesus made PROPITIATION for which is clear from the CONTEXT in 1 John.

The above truth from 1 John 2:2 which is clear as to the biblical meaning is all inclusive not exclusive ( Gods elect Jew/Gentiles) which comes from ones dogma/doctrine ( calvinism) and not Scripture and specifically in 1 John makes clear regarding the world for which Christ made atonement.

I'm all about the TRUTH never dogma, never the doctrines of men, never to win friends, but to only uphold the Truth in Gods word from its context. And the context here is in clear opposition to the teaching of Calvinsm in 1 John. World NEVER means Jew/Gentiles in the epistle but means all of the inhabitants of the world /cosmos who are ungodly , where the lust of the flesh, the pride of life and the lust of the eyes come from and the god of this world the evil one the spirit of antichrist , the spirit of falsehoods rules and reigns in all of those inhabitants in opposition to God.

Its that world whom Christ made propitiation.

hope this helps !!!

 

[TomL]

It may appear to some of our readers that the exposition we have given of John 3:16 in the chapter on "Difficulties and Objections" is a forced and unnatural one, inasmuch as our definition of the term "world" seems to be out of harmony with the meaning and scope of this word in other passages, where, to supply the world of believers (God's elect) as a definition of "world" would make no sense. Many have said to us, "Surely, 'world' means world, that is, you, me, and everybody." In reply we would say: We know from experience how difficult it is to set aside the "traditions of men" and come to a passage which we have heard explained in a certain way scores of times, and study it carefully for ourselves without bias Nevertheless, this is essential if we would learn the mind of God.

Many people suppose they already know the simple meaning of John 3:16, and therefore they conclude that no diligent study is required of them to discover the precise teaching of this verse. Needless to say, such an attitude shuts out any further light which they otherwise might obtain on the passage. Yet, if anyone will take a Concordance and read carefully the various passages in which the term "world" (as a translation of "kosmos") occurs, he will quickly perceive that to ascertain the precise meaning of, the word "world" in any given passage is not nearly so easy as is popularly supposed. The word "kosmos," and its English equivalent "world," is not used with a uniform significance in the New Testament. Very far from it. It is used in quite a number of different ways. Below we will refer to a few passages where this term occurs, suggesting a tentative definition in each case:

"Kosmos" is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17: 24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth." is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17: 24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth."

"Kosmos" is used of the earth: John 13:1; Eph. 1:4, etc., etc.- "When Jesus knew that his hour was come that He should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved His own which were in the world He loved them unto the end." "Depart out of this world" signifies, leave this earth. "According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world." This expression signifies, before the earth was founded-compare Job 38:4 etc.

"Kosmos" is used of the world-system: John 12:31 etc. "Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the Prince of this world be cast out"- compare Matt. 4:8 and I John 5:19, R. V.

"Kosmos" is used of the whole human race: Rom. 3: 19, etc.-"Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God."

"Kosmos" is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom. 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view. is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom. 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view.

​

​ "Kosmos" is used of Gentiles in contrast from Jews: Rom. 11:12 etc. "Now if the fall of them (Israel) be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them (Israel) the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their (Israel's) fulness." Note how the first clause in italics is defined by the latter clause placed in italics. Here, again, "the world" cannot signify all humanity for it excludes Israel!​

"Kosmos" is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place. is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place.

Thus it will be seen that "kosmos" has at least seven clearly defined different meanings in the New Testament. It may be asked, Has then God used a word thus to confuse and confound those who read the Scriptures? We answer, No! nor has He written His Word for lazy people who are too dilatory, or too busy with the things of this world, or, like Martha, so much occupied with "serving," they have no time and no heart to "search" and "study" Holy Writ! Should it be asked further, But how is a searcher of the Scriptures to know which of the above meanings the term "world" has in any given passage? The answer is: This may be ascertained by a careful study of the context, by diligently noting what is predicated of "the world" in each passage, and by prayer fully consulting other parallel passages to the one being studied. The principal subject of John 3:16 is Christ as the Gift of God.

The first clause tells us what moved God to "give" His only begotten Son, and that was His great "love;" the second clause informs us for whom God "gave" His Son, and that is for, "whosoever (or, better, 'every one') believeth;" while the last clause makes known why God "gave" His Son (His purpose), and that is, that everyone that believeth "should not perish but have everlasting life." That "the world" in John 3:16 refers to the world of believers (God's elect), in contradistinction from "the world of the ungodly" (2 Pet. 2:5), is established, unequivocally established, by a comparison of the other passages which speak of God's "love." "God commendeth His love toward US"-the saints, Rom. 5:8. "Whom the Lord loveth He chasteneth"-every son, Heb. 12:6. "We love Him, because He first loved US"-believers, I John 4:19. The wicked God "pities" (see Matt. 18:33). Unto the unthankful and evil God is "kind" (see Luke 6:35). The vessels of wrath He endures "with much long-suffering" (see Rom. 9:22). But "His own" God "loves"!!

Pink has no lexical support for his claim

"Kosmos" is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place. is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place.

Particular;y obvious is john 12:47

John 12:47 (KJV 1900) — 47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world.

where the term world obviously includes all unbelievers

Pink has no lexical support

4. world(people) — all of the people of the world understood according to the place in which human beings live. Related Topics: People; World.
Jn 1:10 ὁ κόσμος
Jn 3:16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν
Jn 8:12 Ἐγώ εἰμι τὸ φῶς τοῦ κόσμου·
Jn 17:6 οὓς ἔδωκάς μοι ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου.
2 Pe 2:5 ἀρχαίου κόσμου οὐκ ἐφείσατο,
Rick Brannan, ed., Lexham Research Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (Lexham Research Lexicons; Bellingham, WA: Lexham Press, 2020).

b. of all mankind, but especially of believers, as the object of God’s love J 3:16, 17c; 6:33, 51; 12:47.

William Arndt et al., A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature : A Translation and Adaption of the Fourth Revised and Augmented Edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-Deutsches Worterbuch Zu Den Schrift En Des Neuen Testaments Und Der Ubrigen Urchristlichen Literatur (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1979), 446.

5. the world as mankind (Sib. Or. 1, 189)—a. gener. οὐαί τῷ κ. ἀπὸ τῶν σκανδάλων woe to mankind because of vexations Mt 18:7; τὸ φῶς τοῦ κ. the light for mankind 5:14; cf. J 8:12; 9:5. ὁ σωτὴρ τοῦ κ. 4:42; 1J 4:14 (this designation is found in the inscrs., esp. oft. of Hadrian [WWeber, Untersuchungen z. Geschichte des Kaisers Hadrianus ’07, 225; 226; 229]).—J 1:29; 3:17b; 17:6.—κρίνειν τὸν κ. (Sib. Or. 4, 184) Ro 3:6; B 4:12; cf. Ro 3:19. ἡ ἁμαρτία εἰς τὸν κ. εἰσῆλθεν 5:12; likew. θάνατος εἰσῆλθεν εἰς τὸν κ. 1 Cl 3:4 (Wsd 2:24; 14:14). Cf. Ro 5:13; 1 Cor 1:27f. περικαθάρματα τοῦ κ. the refuse of mankind 4:13.—6:2a, b (Sallust. 21 p. 36, 13 the souls of the virtuous, together w. the gods, will rule the whole κόσμος); 2 Cor 1:12; 5:19; Js 2:5;

2889. κόσμος kósmos
the world meaning the inhabitants of the earth, men, mankind (Matt. 5:14; 13:38; John 1:29; 3:16; Rom. 3:6, 19; 1 Cor. 4:13; 2 Cor. 5:19; Heb. 11:7; 2 Pet. 2:5; 1 John 2:2…
The Complete Word Study Dictionary: New Testament, G2889 (2 times)

2889. κόσμος kósmos
17:5, 24; Acts 17:24; Rom. 1:20; Heb. 4:3). Metonym for the inhabitants of the universe (1 Cor. 4:9). Figuratively and symbolically, a world of something, as an aggregate such as in James 3…
The Complete Word Study Dictionary: New Testament, G2889 (1 time)

Pink shows what happens when one is driven by theological bias

 

[jeremiah1five]

The context determines its usage.
God so loved the world (spoken to Nicodemus, therefore the context is those in covenant with God or the Hebrews/Jews.) They are the "whosoever."
But there are those ALREADY CONDEMNED, and these are those whose names are NOT in the lamb's book of LIFE. And those whose names ARE in the lamb's book of life are those who are in covenant and by their obedience to God's Torah will have the RIGHT TO the Tree of Life.

14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
Rev. 22:13–14.

You've been infected with Gentile theology that has separated itself a long time ago from its Hebrew roots.
The Church Christ promised to build was populated by Jews until the destruction of the Temple and the Times of the Gentiles began. But the great error is that Gentiles unmoored themselves from the Hebrew roots of true, biblical Christianity and created a different religion, one that has no biblical foundation for the foundation is Salvation is of the Jews.

 

[TomL]

The context determines its usage.
God so loved the world (spoken to Nicodemus, therefore the context is those in covenant with God or the Hebrews/Jews.) They are the "whosoever."
But there are those ALREADY CONDEMNED, and these are those whose names are NOT in the lamb's book of LIFE. And those whose names ARE in the lamb's book of life are those who are in covenant and by their obedience to God's Torah will have the RIGHT TO the Tree of Life.

14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
Rev. 22:13–14.

You've been infected with Gentile theology that has separated itself a long time ago from its Hebrew roots.
The Church Christ promised to build was populated by Jews until the destruction of the Temple and the Times of the Gentiles began. But the great error is that Gentiles unmoored themselves from the Hebrew roots of true, biblical Christianity and created a different religion, one that has no biblical foundation for the foundation is Salvation is of the Jews.

John 3:16–18 (NASB 2020) — 16 “For God so loved the world, that He gave His only Son, so that everyone who believes in Him will not perish, but have eternal life.


God's love was for the World

so he gave his son for the world

17 For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but so that the world might be saved through Him. 18 The one who believes in Him is not judged; the one who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.

that the world might be saved

compare the parallel to verse 17

John 12:47 (KJV 1900) — 47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world.

where any unbeliever is considered a part of the world Christ came to save

You have been infected by unbiblical doctrine and unreasonable prejudices

 

[jeremiah1five]

John 3:16–18 (NASB 2020) — 16 “For God so loved the world, that He gave His only Son, so that everyone who believes in Him will not perish, but have eternal life.
God's love was for the World so he gave his son for the world

Several questions have to asked in order to believe in the universalism you espouse.
The first question is if God loved the world (every person born) then every person born should be saved. What is God's love if it doesn't save. Don't you love your mother or wife? If not saved doesn't your love desire salvation for them? Or your son or daughter?
If God loved the world (everybody) but not everybody is saved, then God's love is a weak, puny love that it does not save the object of that love which is everybody.
Oh, but they have to "accept Jesus into their 'heart'", a heresy that has no biblical foundation. Under the Law there was no "accept Jesus into your heart." When the animals were sacrificed the high priest sprinkle the people with its blood. There was no "accept this blood" as a doctrine. Those in covenant were ALL sprinkled merely because they were in covenant.
And what of the Gentiles (non-Hebrew) that were not a Hebrew or of the twelve tribes? They all died without atonement. The high priest after offering sacrifices and praying for the people of God (Israel) did not leave city limits and go to Gentile lands and offer sacrifices and pray for them. No, generations upon generations of Gentiles were born and died without any atonement. And why is that? Because God did not love them. The only group of people Scripture says God loved were the children of Israel, who was a son of Jacob who was a son of Isaac who was a son of Abraham. The only people God truly loved was Abraham and his seed, the children of Israel:

6 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth.
7 The LORD did not set his love upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people; for ye were the fewest of all people:
8 But because the LORD loved you, and because he would keep the oath which he had sworn unto your fathers, hath the LORD brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondmen, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt.
9 Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations;
Deut. 7:5–9.

Israel, a special people ABOVE ALL the peoples upon the earth had God's love set upon them. None of these things are ever said of Gentiles. So, for God to love EVERYBODY when Scripture declares that He set His love ONLY upon the children of Israel is to violate the Scripture and the very word of God. So, no, God does not love EVERYBODY. Scripture does not say such a thing. Your interpretation of "God so loved the world (everybody)" is in error. And blasphemy.
The word "world" in John 3:16 is in context to Israel, God's chosen people, and a people He loves means Israel. If there was another word in Greek that existed then, I'm sure it would be more specific and all false interpretations such as what you believe would not occur. That's why we are to study the Scripture under the anointing to come to the knowledge of the truth, but you don't possess the truth on who the "world" refers to in John 3:16. God does not love everybody. Deuteronomy 7:6 tells us who God loves and it is NOT everybody. So, put down those Gentile commentaries and get your face in Scripture and let Scripture tell you what to believe and why. I can tell you are infected with Gentile theology that is not lining up with Scripture.
One more time:

6 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth. Deut. 7:6.

That's what true love is. It distinguishes. If God has betrothed Himself to Israel, tell me, what is it when a husband gives the same matrimonial love to another woman as he does his wife? What is it called?
It's called adultery. And on this alone knowing that God IS betrothed to Israel (His Bride) that is is adultery for God to love anyone else the same as His marital Bride.
Unless you want to continue to believe God loves EVERYBODY and call God a liar, that you know more about His love that God Himself. Such arrogance.
Get your doctrine in line with Scripture. Your heresy is showing. By continuing to believe God loves EVERYBODY is to call God a liar and an adulterer.

17 For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but so that the world might be saved through Him.

Again, speaking about Israel His Bride.

18 The one who believes in Him is not judged; the one who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.
that the world might be saved
compare the parallel to verse 17
John 12:47 (KJV 1900) — 47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world.
where any unbeliever is considered a part of the world Christ came to save
You have been infected by unbiblical doctrine and unreasonable prejudices

Have I REALLY? You say God loves EVERYBODY. I just showed you the Scripture that God DOESN'T love everybody and you're calling me in error?
But here it is again. May the Lord open your eyes to His Word:

6 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth.
7 The LORD did not set his love upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people; for ye were the fewest of all people:
8 But because the LORD loved you, and because he would keep the oath which he had sworn unto your fathers, hath the LORD brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondmen, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt.
9 Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations;
Deut 7:5–9.

Do YOU keep His commandments (Torah)? Well, that's what Jesus Christ asked when He was on the planet:

15 If ye love me, keep my commandments. Jn 14:15.

If you keep His commandments (Torah) then you show love for God and His Christ. But I know you don't obey God's commandments. You don't even understand God's love, and if you don't understand God's love then you must not be saved. As it says above, "Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations."

Only those that keep covenant and love God by obeying His commandments receive His mercy. Only those.
So, to test you I ask...does God love EVERYBODY?

 

[TomL]

Several questions have to asked in order to believe in the universalism you espouse.
The first question is if God loved the world (every person born) then every person born should be saved. What is God's love if it doesn't save. Don't you love your mother or wife? If not saved doesn't your love desire salvation for them? Or your son or daughter?

No his love was demonstrated when he sent his son to die for all

Love however does not force its way and it was left up to man to receive God's provision of life

If God loved the world (everybody) but not everybody is saved, then God's love is a weak, puny love that it does not save the object of that love which is everybody.

Your opinion is just that opinion. not factual evidence capable of proving anything

Oh, but they have to "accept Jesus into their 'heart'", a heresy that has no biblical foundation. Under the Law there was no "accept Jesus into your heart." When the animals were sacrificed the high priest sprinkle the people with its blood. There was no "accept this blood" as a doctrine.

Um There is no evidence those without faith in the sacrifice had their sins forgiven

BTW We are under a New covenant not law

Galatians 4:21–31 (UASV) — 21 Tell me, you who want to be under law, do you not listen to the Law? 22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by a slave woman and one by a free woman. 23 But the son of the slave was born according to the flesh, while the son of the free woman was born through promise. 24 which things are spoken allegorically, for these women are two covenants, one from Mount Sinai, bearing children into slavery, who is Hagar. 25 Now this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia and corresponds to the present Jerusalem, for she is in slavery with her children. 26 But the Jerusalem above is free, which is our mother. 27 For it is written, “Rejoice, O barren woman who does not bear; break forth and cry aloud, you who are not in labor; for more numerous are the children of the desolate than of the one who has a husband.” 28 Now you, brothers, like Isaac, are children of promise. 29 But just as at that time he who was born according to the flesh persecuted him who was born according to the Spirit, so also it is now. 30 But what does the Scripture say? “Cast out the slave woman and her son, for the son of the slave woman shall not inherit with the son of the free woman.” 31 So then, brothers, we are not children of a servant girl, but of the free woman.


Also BTW I do not believe all are saved. Care must be taken when employing the word universalism lest you present a false impression

In any case your comment and your defining world as refering to the people of Israel

"Israel, a special people ABOVE ALL the peoples upon the earth had God's love set upon them. "

suffers the same defect you railed against as most were not saved

 

[jeremiah1five]

No his love was demonstrated when he sent his son to die for all

False.
The Passover was instituted when the children of Israel was in Egypt. This Passover meal and its significance prefigured a future time when the Paschal Lamb of God would die on the cross for the children of Israel IN COVENANT with God. God passed over His people and death instead came to Egypt (Gentiles) and God would not change the object of His Passover to include Gentiles especially since this first Passover was given to Israel of twelve tribes. And when the Mosaic Covenant was made it was made with the children of Israel and when the animals were sacrificed according to the instruction given to Moses at the Mount, he sprinkled the children of Israel with the blood of the lamb NOT GENTILES. God has since kept covenant with Israel for at no time while the children of Israel were in the desert and later to occupy portion of the Promised Land did the high priest leave Israel's borders and travel to Gentile lands where Gentiles resided and offer sacrifices or pray for this people. Jesus Christ came and fulfilled covenant and prophecies that had Israel at its center and as was done with the animals whose blood covered the sins of the Jewish people the same has been fulfilled in which the Lamb of God, Jesus Christ, died for the sins of God's people the children of Israel. The New Covenant states this without ambiguity as does prophecy in the Hebrew Scripture:

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour (member of the twelve tribes), and every man his brother (member of the same twelve tribes), saying,
Know the LORD:
For they shall all know me,
From the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD:
For I will forgive their iniquity,
And I will remember their sin no more.
Jer. 31:34.

This is direct prophecy of the purpose of God in the New Covenant made with the House of Israel and the House of Judah and as you can hopefully read with your own eyes this covenant and the promise to forgive the sins in total and forever is made with and towards the children of Israel. There are NO GENTILES mentioned anywhere in this prophecy and this covenant for this covenant is between God and the House of Israel. Even Jesus Himself states without ambiguity that He was sent to the lost sheep of the House of Israel. But as consolation in the fact that salvation is OF THE JEWS God is saving Gentiles WITHOUT a covenant and this truth should cause you to be grateful for your being saved by Christ if indeed Christ has saved you. The great error of Gentiles in this era of the "times of the Gentiles" is that they think erroneously that Christ died for them completely ignoring the fact that Messiah was promised to Israel, that the sacrifices prefigured a time when God will forgive ALL the sins of His covenant people Israel. To add to the bible as Gentiles have falsely done is a lie as everything found in Scripture is made and done towards Abraham and his descendants, a people known as the children of Israel (Jacob.) The Lamb of God was prophesied to and for Israel. The Lamb of God was sent to die for the sins of the children of Israel as per covenant and prophecy made by Jewish prophets sent to Israel in Israel's past.

Love however does not force its way and it was left up to man to receive God's provision of life

When the sacrifice was made for the sins of the children of Israel Moses took the blood and sprinkled the people of Israel. There was no "choice" to receive or reject what was done in Israel for all the people participated in being sprinkled which foreshadowed a time when the Lamb of God would also have His blood sacrificed for the children of Israel as taught in the Torah and other prophecies found in the writings of Israel's prophets such as Isaiah 53. You cannot re-interpret the Scripture that has Israel as the apple of God's eye, His Betrothed and His Church called Israel of twelve tribes with a Gentile mindset. If you are going to interpret Scripture, it must be done with a Jewish mindset for everything written in the bible has Israel as the centerpiece of all God does to and for Israel.

Your opinion is just that opinion. not factual evidence capable of proving anything

I receive the truth of Scripture which states that the New Covenant is made between God and the House of Israel.
Do you?

31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD,
That I will make a new covenant
With the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers
In the day that I took them by the hand
To bring them out of the land of Egypt;
Which my covenant they brake,
Although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD:
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel;
After those days, saith the LORD,
fI will put my law in their inward parts,
And write it in their hearts;
And will be their God,
And they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying,
Know the LORD:
For they shall all know me,
From the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD:
For I will forgive their iniquity,
And I will remember their sin no more.
Jer. 31:31–34.

Do you accept as written in Scripture that the New Covenant instituted by Jesus Christ at His last Passover meal is made between God and Israel only?
(let's see if you are honest with Scripture or a liar.)

Um There is no evidence those without faith in the sacrifice had their sins forgiven

There is no faith requirement in either the Abrahamic or Mosaic Covenants. None. These are covenants in which for the most part the Abrahamic Covenant is one-sided meaning the provisions made in this covenant such as blessings and land that there is no requirement of faith on Abraham's part only circumcision and that God would do the rest. It is also true that the only requirement under the Mosaic Covenant is not faith but obedience. Not one Hebrew under the Mosaic Covenant had to have faith in anything and for you to add to the bible things that are just not there is to be found a liar:

6 Add thou not unto his words,
Lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
Prov. 30:6.

If you want to add to the bible, you do so at your own peril.

BTW We are under a New covenant not law

Who's "we?" If you mean Jews, then yes. They are under the New Covenant.
If you mean Gentiles, then you are in error for the New Covenant is strictly between God and the House of Israel.

31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD,
That I will make a new covenant
With the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
Jer. 31:31.

If you are an honest man who hates liars then you would agree with what Scripture says with regard to the New Covenant, that the New Covenant is between God (husband) and the House of Israel (Bride.)
Do you agree?
Or are you going to quote a New Covenant Scripture that you interpret as saying Gentiles are in the covenant?
Knowing your indoctrination of Gentile heresy, I believe you will cite a NT Scripture and re-interpret it to include Gentiles. But the thing is that there are NO GENTILES mentioned in the New Covenant found in Jeremiah 31:31-34.
NONE.

Galatians 4:21–31 (UASV) — 21 Tell me, you who want to be under law, do you not listen to the Law? 22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by a slave woman and one by a free woman. 23 But the son of the slave was born according to the flesh, while the son of the free woman was born through promise. 24 which things are spoken allegorically, for these women are two covenants, one from Mount Sinai, bearing children into slavery, who is Hagar. 25 Now this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia and corresponds to the present Jerusalem, for she is in slavery with her children. 26 But the Jerusalem above is free, which is our mother. 27 For it is written, “Rejoice, O barren woman who does not bear; break forth and cry aloud, you who are not in labor; for more numerous are the children of the desolate than of the one who has a husband.” 28 Now you, brothers, like Isaac, are children of promise. 29 But just as at that time he who was born according to the flesh persecuted him who was born according to the Spirit, so also it is now. 30 But what does the Scripture say? “Cast out the slave woman and her son, for the son of the slave woman shall not inherit with the son of the free woman.” 31 So then, brothers, we are not children of a servant girl, but of the free woman.

Here, Saul explains a great deal of the covenant God made with the children of Israel in the desert at the time of the Tabernacle in which animal sacrifices were instituted to cover the sins of the children of Israel yearly until a final sacrifice in the Person of Israel's prophesied Messiah would die for the people of Israel eternally. Even the high priest prophesied such an occurrence taking place of one dying for the people so that they lose not their nation or their Temple. Do you know the Scripture, or must I post it and educate you?

Also BTW I do not believe all are saved. Care must be taken when employing the word universalism lest you present a false impression

Your words betray your belief. You DO believe in universalism even though you do not know in what way you do.

In any case your comment and your defining world as refering to the people of Israel
suffers the same defect you railed against as most were not saved

Who do you mean "most?" Are you saying "most" Jews were not saved? Because if you are then you would be in error. Since the animal sacrifices prefigured the time when Jesus Christ, the Lamb of God, would offer Himself as sacrifice for the people of God it was instructed by God when the Tabernacle existed that Moses would sprinkle the people without discrimination and every man, woman, and child was "under the blood" then and the children of Israel are "under the blood" now. God sprinkled the people of Israel in covenant with God because that was the purpose of sacrifice. It was to atone for the sins of God's covenant people Israel. To add "Gentiles" is to be dishonest with Scripture and add to the bible. Only dishonest people do that whether you are Mormon, Seventh Day, or JW, all false teachers and false 'churches' do that because they have such pride and arrogance to conclude everything done in Scripture to Israel of twelve tribes is also done or instead of to Gentiles of One tribe. Themselves.
There is only ONE people of God and that is Israel.
Gentiles are NOT the Church or Bride or people of God. Such belief and teaching supplant Israel as the true beneficiaries of the covenant promises and prophecies of God towards this covenant people.
To teach otherwise is to OPPOSE God.

 

[TomL]

False.

Sorry but this is truth


Christ died for all

1 Timothy 2:4–6
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Isaiah 53:6
All we like sheep have gone astray; We have turned every one to his own way; And the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
John 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
2 Corinthians 5:14–15
14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
John 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
1 John 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
2 Corinthians 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

which is why he could say

John 12:32 (ESV) — 32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.”

 

[jeremiah1five]

Sorry but this is truth


Christ died for all

1 Timothy 2:4–6
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

You have to pay attention to the context. Saul is writing to Jewish Christians and the "all" is in context to them, the Jews.

Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

Again, the Word of God is TO and FOR believers. God never gave His Word to unbelievers. So, in every passage where "all" or "whosoever" etc., is mentioned it refers to the Jews or Jewish believers.
You have to be careful with the word "ALL." Here's an example:

5 Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan,
6 And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins.
Mt 3:4–6.

Do you see the word "ALL" in verse 5 and 6?
Surely the "ALL" cannot include the Pharisees and the Sadducees. They DIDN'T come out to be baptized of John.
So, be careful with the word "all" such as the word "all" in the verses you are using trying to prove your point. "ALL" does not necessarily mean "ALL" as in EVERYONE.

Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

I looked at this word "every" in my study. It means "EACH" and it doesn't mean EVERYONE.

Isaiah 53:6
All we like sheep have gone astray; We have turned every one to his own way; And the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
1 Timothy 4:10

Identify the "WE" and this helps identify the "ALL" in this passage.

For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.

Again, "ALL" does not mean "EVERYONE."

John 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.

Same thing with the word "world." A.W. Pink shows how "world" has several meanings and it can be tricky. BUT KNOWING God has salvation COVENANT with Abraham and his seed helps define the word "world" and "we" and "our" and "us" and "all."

2 Corinthians 5:14–15
14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

Again, the word "all" does not mean "EVERYBODY" or "EVERYONE." Look at the context and the context is simply that the Word of God and Christ is for believers ONLY.
Not even God casts His pearls ("the Word") to swine.
Pearls in Scripture symbolize God's "Word."

John 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
1 John 2:2

Very good. "That nation" means the "Jews/Israel."

And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
2 Corinthians 5:19

Again, the context is the Word of God is given to and for believers so the "world" refers to the "Jews."

To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

Scriptures like this and the ones you posted above must be understood in the context of its usage. Look at what A.W. Pink is teaching.

2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

Look at the context.
Peter says "usward." Who are the "usward?"
The "usward" are the "elect."

1 SIMON Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ
2 Peter 1:1.

Do you see WHO the "usward" are? They are those "that have obtained like precious faith with us"

In other words, BELIEVERS.

which is why he could say

John 12:32 (ESV) — 32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.”

The original event occurred in Exodus and it occurred among the children of Israel when Moses put a serpent on a pole and commanded the people to look up at the cursed thing and they'd be saved. Same thing John is talking about. The children of Israel are in covenant with God and means BELIEVERS, or "those that have obtained like precious faith" (BELIEVERS.)

 

[TomL]

Sorry but this is truth


Christ died for all

1 Timothy 2:4–6
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

jeremiah1five​

You have to pay attention to the context. Saul is writing to Jewish Christians and the "all" is in context to them, the Jews.

Are you seriously going to claim Christ died for all Jews but did not die for gentiles as well?

TomL
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

jeremiah1five​

Again, the Word of God is TO and FOR believers. God never gave His Word to unbelievers. So, in every passage where "all" or "whosoever" etc., is mentioned it refers to the Jews or Jewish believers.
You have to be careful with the word "ALL." Here's an example:

Read the text not your theology

All men without exception were effected by the sin of Adam.

Paul is arguing Christ's one act of righteousness was sufficient to do even more than Adam's one act of sin

Judgment came to all men not just all Jews. Christ one act therefore is on behalf of all men

jeremiah1five​

5 Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan,
6 And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins.
Mt 3:4–6.

Do you see the word "ALL" in verse 5 and 6?
Surely the "ALL" cannot include the Pharisees and the Sadducees. They DIDN'T come out to be baptized of John.
So, be careful with the word "all" such as the word "all" in the verses you are using trying to prove your point. "ALL" does not necessarily mean "ALL" as in EVERYONE.

Sorry you are simply ignoring context

You cannot take a word from one context and impose it on another

All in Rom 5:18b is determined by the meaning of all in Rom 5;18a

Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation

Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

jeremiah1five​

I looked at this word "every" in my study. It means "EACH" and it doesn't mean EVERYONE.

Which makes it even more decisive

each man does not all for an exception

Isaiah 53:6
All we like sheep have gone astray; We have turned every one to his own way; And the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.

jeremiah1five​

Identify the "WE" and this helps identify the "ALL" in this passage.

Yes it is all who went astray

Do you know any who were perfect and never went astray

1 Timothy 4:10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.

jeremiah1five​

Again, "ALL" does not mean "EVERYONE."

Begging the question and ignoring context

1 Timothy 4:10 (KJV 1900) — 10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.

You will note all men is differentiated from those that believe

all men is greater than those that believe

it therefore refers to those who do not believe

John 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.

jeremiah1five​

Same thing with the word "world." A.W. Pink shows how "world" has several meanings and it can be tricky. BUT KNOWING God has salvation COVENANT with Abraham and his seed helps define the word "world" and "we" and "our" and "us" and "all."

Pink has no lexical support. No lexicon claims world refers to the elect. And Jesus said any man not elect men

world in context as the unbelieving Jews understood included them

John 6:51–52 (KJV 1900) — 51 I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world. 52 The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?
as Christ stated
John 6:32–33 (KJV 1900) — 32 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven. 33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world.

2 Corinthians 5:14–15
14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

jeremiah1five​

Again, the word "all" does not mean "EVERYBODY" or "EVERYONE." Look at the context and the context is simply that the Word of God and Christ is for believers ONLY.
Not even God casts His pearls ("the Word") to swine.
Pearls in Scripture symbolize God's "Word."

Again, begging the question. There is no word world here. So it seems to me you are rejecting scripture by rote

There is nothing at all in the context about the word of God being for believers alone

2 Corinthians 5:9–15 (KJV 1900) — 9 Wherefore we labour, that, whether present or absent, we may be accepted of him. 10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad. 11 Knowing therefore the terror of the Lord, we persuade men; but we are made manifest unto God; and I trust also are made manifest in your consciences. 12 For we commend not ourselves again unto you, but give you occasion to glory on our behalf, that ye may have somewhat to answer them which glory in appearance, and not in heart. 13 For whether we be beside ourselves, it is to God: or whether we be sober, it is for your cause. 14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

Further it is strongly intimated that the those Christ died for is greater than those that live

Christ died for all, that those that live

it is differentiated from those he died for

It is all

John 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
1 John 2:2

jeremiah1five​

Very good. "That nation" means the "Jews/Israel."

All Jews not just some

1John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

jeremiah1five​

Again, the context is the Word of God is given to and for believers so the "world" refers to the "Jews."

Ignoring context and John use of the term whole world

compare

1 John 5:19 (KJV 1900) — 19 And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness.

the our are believers

the whole world is other than the believers

In 1 John, the phrase “whole world” only happens twice: 2:2 and 5:19. The world is contrasted to believers. All people living in unbelief at the time John wrote is his meaning. That is, all without distinction of those unbelievers at the time John wrote, and all without exception of unbelievers at the time John wrote.

To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

jeremiah1five​

Scriptures like this and the ones you posted above must be understood in the context of its usage. Look at what A.W. Pink is teaching.

Except you never deal with context and you only appeal to Pink and offer denial

I think it has been clearly established you have no biblical grounds for your denial.

 

[jeremiah1five]

Are you seriously going to claim Christ died for all Jews but did not die for gentiles as well?

Hebrews were in covenant with God. The high priest offered sacrifices for the children of Israel and there is NO SCRIPTURE he left city limits and went to the heathen Gentiles and offered atonement for those Gentiles. So, unless you can show me the high priest left Israel and went to the Gentiles and offered sacrifices for their sins then the answer is that the lamb of God died for ONLY the sins of the children of Israel.

Read the text not your theology
All men without exception were effected by the sin of Adam.
Paul is arguing Christ's one act of righteousness was sufficient to do even more than Adam's one act of sin

But Adam and the woman were guilty of TWO acts of sin. One for adding to God's Word ("neither shall ye touch it"), and for eating from the forbidden tree. The woman was tempted, the man was not. But both were sinners before the eating from the forbidden tree.

Judgment came to all men not just all Jews. Christ one act therefore is on behalf of all men

After offering sacrifice for the children of Israel the high priest did not go to the Gentiles and offer sacrifices for their sins, did he? No, He did not. Therefore, Gentiles under the Law were NOT ATONED at any time since Moses and Gentiles are NOT atoned after Moses to this day. The Paschal lamb was sacrificed for the sins of the children of Israel during the time of Moses and the Paschal Lamb of God died for the children of Israel since then but NOT Gentiles.

Sorry you are simply ignoring context
You cannot take a word from one context and impose it on another
All in Rom 5:18b is determined by the meaning of all in Rom 5;18a
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation
Which makes it even more decisive
each man does not all for an exception
Yes it is all who went astray
Do you know any who were perfect and never went astray
Begging the question and ignoring context
1 Timothy 4:10 (KJV 1900) — 10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.

ALL MEN that were in covenant with God and this means the children of Israel. The animal sacrifices were done for the children of Israel at the time of Moses and the Lamb of God on His cross died for the children of Israel in covenant with God. THAT was the reason why Christ came and died. He died and resurrected for the children of Israel.
You have been taught Gentile heresy that KNOWS this truth but want to add and change God's Words to include themselves in a covenant they were NEVER in whether at the time of Abraham, or at the time of Moses, or even when Christ died on His cross. If there's no precedent in the Old Testament, then there is no reality in the New Covenant. Jesus died and resurrected for the sins of the children of Israel who were in covenant with God.
Unless you can show me the shadow under the Law and in the Scripture that the high priest left the Promised Land, went to the Gentile nations, and offered sacrifices for their sins. Go ahead. I'll wait. Post it.

You will note all men is differentiated from those that believe
all men is greater than those that believe
it therefore refers to those who do not believe

ALL MEN did not have covenant with God. ALL MEN is in context to those that did have covenant with God and the ALL MEN are the children of Israel. Only Israel of twelve tribes and who are Abraham's seed are inj covenant with God and were atoned. Christ came to Israel as prophesied and died and resurrected for the children of Israel in keeping with the Passover instituted by God and WITH THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL. The error of Gentiles is self-serving. They have added and changed the truth of God for a lie. There is NO SCRIPTURE of the high priest after praying for the people of God (Children of Israel) left the Promised Land and went to the Gentiles and prayed for them or offered sacrifices for their sins. NONE. Gentiles are NOT atoned in either Testament.

Pink has no lexical support. No lexicon claims world refers to the elect. And Jesus said any man not elect men
world in context as the unbelieving Jews understood included them
John 6:51–52 (KJV 1900) — 51 I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world. 52 The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?
as Christ stated
John 6:32–33 (KJV 1900) — 32 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven. 33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world.

That true bread was the manna from heaven and God sent it to the children of Israel. There is NO SCRIPTURE the manna from heaven was sent to Gentiles. Therefore, if God did not send manna from heaven to Gentiles in the Old Testament, then Jesus Christ, the Bread from heaven was NOT sent to Gentiles under the New Covenant because God has NO COVENANT with Gentiles. NONE. Christ was sent to die for the sins of Israel, NOT THE WORLD.
You have added to the Bible doctrine that is not there. By believing traditions of (Gentile) men and not the Word of God upon which your faith is supposed to rest and trust, then you are not a man of God but a man of men.

Again, begging the question. There is no word world here. So it seems to me you are rejecting scripture by rote
There is nothing at all in the context about the word of God being for believers alone
2 Corinthians 5:9–15 (KJV 1900) — 9 Wherefore we labour, that, whether present or absent, we may be accepted of him. 10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad. 11 Knowing therefore the terror of the Lord, we persuade men; but we are made manifest unto God; and I trust also are made manifest in your consciences. 12 For we commend not ourselves again unto you, but give you occasion to glory on our behalf, that ye may have somewhat to answer them which glory in appearance, and not in heart. 13 For whether we be beside ourselves, it is to God: or whether we be sober, it is for your cause. 14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
Further it is strongly intimated that the those Christ died for is greater than those that live
Christ died for all, that those that live
it is differentiated from those he died for
It is all

Type and shadow. There is NO SCRIPTURE the high priest ever offered sacrifices for the sins of Gentiles.
IF you can provide the Scripture the high priest under direction from God offered sacrifices for Gentiles then you have won this argument, and I will accept your false doctrine as true. IF you cannot provide Scripture the high priest offered sacrifices for the sins of Gentiles then I have won this argument, and you must accept the Word of truth on this subject. Go ahead. Provide Scripture and you win. If you don't you lose.

All Jews not just some
Ignoring context and John use of the term whole world

The high priest did not offer sacrifices for the whole world but for the children of Israel.
Christ was not sent to die for the whole world but for Israel.
What's the problem?

compare
1 John 5:19 (KJV 1900) — 19 And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness.
the our are believers
the whole world is other than the believers
In 1 John, the phrase “whole world” only happens twice: 2:2 and 5:19. The world is contrasted to believers. All people living in unbelief at the time John wrote is his meaning. That is, all without distinction of those unbelievers at the time John wrote, and all without exception of unbelievers at the time John wrote.

Show me Scripture the high priest offered sacrifices for the whole world.
Christ was sent in order to fulfill the Law in which the Lamb of God died for the children of Israel.
And if there is no Old Testament precedent, then there is no New Testament reality.
You are believing a lie.

Except you never deal with context and you only appeal to Pink and offer denial
I think it has been clearly established you have no biblical grounds for your denial.

Everything in the Tabernacle in the desert represented some aspect of Jesus Christ. The candlesticks represented the Lord as Light of the world, and the world was the children of Israel.
The manna from heaven placed in a jar and laid in the Ark represent Jesus Christ as the Bread from heaven. The lambs sacrificed for the sins of the children of Israel was performed by the high priest for the sins of the children of Israel.
Jesus Christ, the Lamb of God, was sent to die for the sins of the children of Israel NOT THE WORLD of Gentiles. So, if you cannot find Scripture the lambs sacrificed in the Tabernacle for the world then it is only reasonable the world of Gentiles was not atoned. Why do you not understand this?

Show me Scripture the high priest offered sacrifices (the lamb) for the sins of Gentiles, and I will concede defeat on this argument.
That's all you have to do and you win.
Go ahead. I'll wait.

 

[TomL]

Hebrews were in covenant with God. The high priest offered sacrifices for the children of Israel and there is NO SCRIPTURE he left city limits and went to the heathen Gentiles and offered atonement for those Gentiles. So, unless you can show me the high priest left Israel and went to the Gentiles and offered sacrifices for their sins then the answer is that the lamb of God died for ONLY the sins of the children of Israel.

I spoke of Jesus not the high priest

Once again, are you claiming Jesus did not die for gentiles

1 Timothy 2:4–6
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
John 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
2 Corinthians 5:14–15
14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
John 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
1 John 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
2 Corinthians 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.


Should alter scripture to say all Hebrew men, every Hebrew man, The whole Hebrew world, any Hebrew man?

 

[jeremiah1five]

I spoke of Jesus not the high priest

Jesus Christ IS High Priest. Don't you know that?

Once again, are you claiming Jesus did not die for gentiles

1 Timothy 2:4–6
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
John 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
2 Corinthians 5:14–15
14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
John 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
1 John 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
2 Corinthians 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

God made three salvation covenants with the Hebrew people beginning with Abram the Hebrew (Gen. 14:13.)
Then God extended the covenant to Abraham's son Isaac, and then to Abraham's grandson, all Hebrews.
Then, God extended a new covenant with the children of Jacob/Israel (more Hebrews) and it was called the Mosaic Covenant. God gave this people His Law and instructed them in building a Tabernacle and gave them Laws instructing in His worship and Laws to live by among themselves. In this covenant Moses prophesied:

15 The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken; Dt 18:15.

This means Israel's Messiah, Redeemer, and King would be born from one of their tribes. Jesus Messiah was born from the tribe of Judah. This is a covenant prophecy. God also instructed the Hebrews in the sacrificial system of worship and one that foretold of Israel's coming Redeemer Jesus Christ. Before Jesus was born the angel Gabriel told Joseph:

21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Mt 1:20–21.

"His people" are His fellow-Hebrew brethren. And that is exactly what and who He died for to save: His people the Jews. Then there is this:

31 And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.
Jn 1:30–31.

Meaning "to appear to Israel." His whole coming was prophesied in covenant. He came and fulfilled the covenant, and even Jesus' very own words tells us who He came for:

24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Mt 15:23–24.

Jesus was not prophesied for Gentiles. Gentiles were NOT in the Mosaic Covenant which prefigured the Lamb of God and the sacrifice He would give for the people of Israel, and He came according to the Scripture TO and FOR Israel.
Now, if you want to violate the Word of God and Jesus' own words and add to the bible things that are not there then you go ahead. I can tell the depth of your Gentile heresy goes deep because I used to believe the heresy you now believe but when I became a man, I put away childish things.

Should alter scripture to say all Hebrew men, every Hebrew man, The whole Hebrew world, any Hebrew man?

Not necessary. The word "world" is interpreted according to the context IF you understand the several ways it is defined. There is nothing in Scripture - NOTE: IN SCRIPTURE - that says Israel's Messiah was prophesied to and for Gentiles. God made NO COVENANT with Gentiles and what you as a Gentile should do and as a supposed Christian is accept the Word of God and believe Jesus' own words. He fulfilled the Mosaic Covenant and initiated a New Covenant, and the New Covenant is between God and the House of Israel and the House of Judah. This equals twelve tribes. ALL Hebrew (Jer. 31:31-34.)
The thing for you to do is to be honest with the Scripture I've provided and don't add to God's Words. You WILL be found out to be a liar and no liar has eternal life in him.

 

[TomL]

Jesus Christ IS High Priest. Don't you know that?

God made three salvation covenants with the Hebrew people beginning with Abram the Hebrew (Gen. 14:13.)
Then God extended the covenant to Abraham's son Isaac, and then to Abraham's grandson, all Hebrews.
Then, God extended a new covenant with the children of Jacob/Israel (more Hebrews) and it was called the Mosaic Covenant. God gave this people His Law and instructed them in building a Tabernacle and gave them Laws instructing in His worship and Laws to live by among themselves. In this covenant Moses prophesied:

15 The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken; Dt 18:15.

This means Israel's Messiah, Redeemer, and King would be born from one of their tribes. Jesus Messiah was born from the tribe of Judah. This is a covenant prophecy. God also instructed the Hebrews in the sacrificial system of worship and one that foretold of Israel's coming Redeemer Jesus Christ. Before Jesus was born the angel Gabriel told Joseph:

21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Mt 1:20–21.

"His people" are His fellow-Hebrew brethren. And that is exactly what and who He died for to save: His people the Jews. Then there is this:

31 And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.
Jn 1:30–31.

Meaning "to appear to Israel." His whole coming was prophesied in covenant. He came and fulfilled the covenant, and even Jesus' very own words tells us who He came for:

24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Mt 15:23–24.

Jesus was not prophesied for Gentiles. Gentiles were NOT in the Mosaic Covenant which prefigured the Lamb of God and the sacrifice He would give for the people of Israel, and He came according to the Scripture TO and FOR Israel.
Now, if you want to violate the Word of God and Jesus' own words and add to the bible things that are not there then you go ahead. I can tell the depth of your Gentile heresy goes deep because I used to believe the heresy you now believe but when I became a man, I put away childish things.

Not necessary. The word "world" is interpreted according to the context IF you understand the several ways it is defined. There is nothing in Scripture - NOTE: IN SCRIPTURE - that says Israel's Messiah was prophesied to and for Gentiles. God made NO COVENANT with Gentiles and what you as a Gentile should do and as a supposed Christian is accept the Word of God and believe Jesus' own words. He fulfilled the Mosaic Covenant and initiated a New Covenant, and the New Covenant is between God and the House of Israel and the House of Judah. This equals twelve tribes. ALL Hebrew (Jer. 31:31-34.)
The thing for you to do is to be honest with the Scripture I've provided and don't add to God's Words. You WILL be found out to be a liar and no liar has eternal life in him.

World never means Hebrew elect

Romans 9:23–26 (NASB 2020) — 23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon objects of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24 namely us, whom He also called, not only from among Jews, but also from among Gentiles, 25 as He also says in Hosea: “I WILL CALL THOSE WHO WERE NOT MY PEOPLE, ‘MY PEOPLE,’ AND HER WHO WAS NOT BELOVED, ‘BELOVED.’ ” 26 “AND IT SHALL BE THAT IN THE PLACE WHERE IT WAS SAID TO THEM, ‘YOU ARE NOT MY PEOPLE,’ THERE THEY SHALL BE CALLED SONS OF THE LIVING GOD.”

A quote from Hosea

Hosea 2:23 (ESV) — 23 and I will sow her for myself in the land. And I will have mercy on No Mercy, and I will say to Not My People, ‘You are my people’; and he shall say, ‘You are my God.’ ”

Seems your ethnic cleansing is out of step with God's plans

Acts 15:16–18 (NET) — 16 ‘After this I will return, and I will rebuild the fallen tent of David; I will rebuild its ruins and restore it, 17 so that the rest of humanity may seek the Lord, namely, all the Gentiles I have called to be my own,’ says the Lord, who makes these things 18 known from long ago.

A quote from the septuagint


Amos 9:11 (Brenton LXX En) — 11 In that day I will raise up the tabernacle of David that is fallen, and will rebuild the ruins of it, and will set up the parts thereof that have been broken down, and will build it up as in the ancient days:

 

[jeremiah1five]

World never means Hebrew elect

Romans 9:23–26 (NASB 2020) — 23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon objects of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24 namely us, whom He also called, not only from among Jews, but also from among Gentiles, 25 as He also says in Hosea: “I WILL CALL THOSE WHO WERE NOT MY PEOPLE, ‘MY PEOPLE,’ AND HER WHO WAS NOT BELOVED, ‘BELOVED.’ ” 26 “AND IT SHALL BE THAT IN THE PLACE WHERE IT WAS SAID TO THEM, ‘YOU ARE NOT MY PEOPLE,’ THERE THEY SHALL BE CALLED SONS OF THE LIVING GOD.”

A quote from Hosea

Hosea 2:23 (ESV) — 23 and I will sow her for myself in the land. And I will have mercy on No Mercy, and I will say to Not My People, ‘You are my people’; and he shall say, ‘You are my God.’ ”

Seems your ethnic cleansing is out of step with God's plans

Acts 15:16–18 (NET) — 16 ‘After this I will return, and I will rebuild the fallen tent of David; I will rebuild its ruins and restore it, 17 so that the rest of humanity may seek the Lord, namely, all the Gentiles I have called to be my own,’ says the Lord, who makes these things 18 known from long ago.

A quote from the septuagint


Amos 9:11 (Brenton LXX En) — 11 In that day I will raise up the tabernacle of David that is fallen, and will rebuild the ruins of it, and will set up the parts thereof that have been broken down, and will build it up as in the ancient days:

Another problem you have is using corrupt English translations.

World can mean the Hebrew elect. It depends on the context.
John 3:16 is an example of the "world" being the Hebrew elect.

Atonement was made for the Hebrew people on the cross at Calvary. Jesus died for Israel in covenant. He was promised to Israel and to Israel He came. He taught God's Torah to His people and commanded His people that if they love Him to obey His Torah.

33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel;
After those days, saith the LORD,
I will put my law in their inward parts,
And write it in their hearts;
And will be their God,
And they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour [member of another tribe], and every man his brother [member of the same tribe], saying,
Know the LORD:
For they shall all know me,
From the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD:
For I will forgive their iniquity,
And I will remember their sin no more.
Jer. 31:33–34.

As you can see the New Covenant instituted by Jesus Christ and with His body and blood is a covenant with the House of Israel or simply, the Jews. There are NO GENTILES in this blood covenant.
Christ died for the covenant people of God aka the Hebrews/Jews. That was the purpose of the covenants and that was the goal of Christ the Lamb of God.
There are NO GENTILES in this covenant. God is saving Gentiles without a salvation covenant. This should cause Gentiles to be eternally grateful, but instead the Gentiles after the destruction of the Jewish Temple have stolen the covenants, stolen the terminology such as terms "Church" and "saints" and "Bride" and have made them all their own, and in these sins say, "in what way have we robbed thee?"
We shall see. When Christ returns, He comes to put down all rule and authority and will subdue the Gentile church and will rule them with a rod of iron. But He will lead and guide His people the Jews with a Shepherds staff.
The only warning from God is "Be prepared."

 

[TomL]

Another problem you have is using corrupt English translations.

World can mean the Hebrew elect. It depends on the context.
John 3:16 is an example of the "world" being the Hebrew elect.

Atonement was made for the Hebrew people on the cross at Calvary. Jesus died for Israel in covenant. He was promised to Israel and to Israel He came. He taught God's Torah to His people and commanded His people that if they love Him to obey His Torah.

33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel;
After those days, saith the LORD,
I will put my law in their inward parts,
And write it in their hearts;
And will be their God,
And they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour [member of another tribe], and every man his brother [member of the same tribe], saying,
Know the LORD:
For they shall all know me,
From the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD:
For I will forgive their iniquity,
And I will remember their sin no more.
Jer. 31:33–34.

As you can see the New Covenant instituted by Jesus Christ and with His body and blood is a covenant with the House of Israel or simply, the Jews. There are NO GENTILES in this blood covenant.
Christ died for the covenant people of God aka the Hebrews/Jews. That was the purpose of the covenants and that was the goal of Christ the Lamb of God.
There are NO GENTILES in this covenant. God is saving Gentiles without a salvation covenant. This should cause Gentiles to be eternally grateful, but instead the Gentiles after the destruction of the Jewish Temple have stolen the covenants, stolen the terminology such as terms "Church" and "saints" and "Bride" and have made them all their own, and in these sins say, "in what way have we robbed thee?"
We shall see. When Christ returns, He comes to put down all rule and authority and will subdue the Gentile church and will rule them with a rod of iron. But He will lead and guide His people the Jews with a Shepherds staff.
The only warning from God is "Be prepared."

Sorry you have provided no lexical support for that claim

And Christ died for all peoples

1 Timothy 2:4–6
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
John 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
2 Corinthians 5:14–15
14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: 15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
John 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
1 John 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
2 Corinthians 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

 

[jeremiah1five]

World never means Hebrew elect

World is a word that is neutral and depending on its usage and context does mean Hebrews just as it means Gentiles, and "inhabitants" or "age" or political system like Roman Empire.
I always see that when Gentiles want to include themselves erroneously into the Abrahamic Covenant, they always use NT passages but NEVER use the original OT Scripture where the covenant is made in Genesis 17. That's because where the covenant is made there are no Gentiles included but is a covenant made between God and Abraham and his Hebrew seed. The Abrahamic Covenant is between God, Abraham, and his seed a people later to be identified as the Jews.

Romans 9:23–26 (NASB 2020) — 23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon objects of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24 namely us, whom He also called, not only from among Jews, but also from among Gentiles, 25 as He also says in Hosea: “I WILL CALL THOSE WHO WERE NOT MY PEOPLE, ‘MY PEOPLE,’ AND HER WHO WAS NOT BELOVED, ‘BELOVED.’ ” 26 “AND IT SHALL BE THAT IN THE PLACE WHERE IT WAS SAID TO THEM, ‘YOU ARE NOT MY PEOPLE,’ THERE THEY SHALL BE CALLED SONS OF THE LIVING GOD.”

A quote from Hosea

Hosea 2:23 (ESV) — 23 and I will sow her for myself in the land. And I will have mercy on No Mercy, and I will say to Not My People, ‘You are my people’; and he shall say, ‘You are my God.’ ”

You need to study more because you like to add to the bible a lot. But that's the Gentile mindset for you. They know in their heart of hearts there is NO COVENANT between God and Gentiles, and they oppose themselves by using NT Scripture and re-interpret it and add to the bible things not there.
The Pentateuch is the Law, Psalms, and Prophets. These are Hebrew writings NOT GENTILE writings. In the Pentateuch you find the history and culture of the Hebrew people and their relationship with the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. There is also history and culture of the children of Israel also called the Jews. The reason why there are no Gentile Scriptures is because God has NO RELATIONSHIP with the non-Hebrew nations, God has no covenant with the non-Hebrew nations, and God really doesn't have any respect for the nations of Gentiles.
Hosea was instructed to marry a prostitute as a message from God to unfaithful Israel. But God restored relationship with His covenant people because God is a Promise-Keeper and he is Betrothed to the Hebrew people. Israel is His Bride.

18 And in that day will I make a covenant for them with the beasts of the field,
And with the fowls of heaven, and with the creeping things of the ground:
And I will break the bow and the sword and the battle out of the earth,
And will make them to lie down safely.
19 And I will betroth thee unto me for ever;
Yea, I will betroth thee unto me in righteousness, and in judgment,
And in lovingkindness, and in mercies.
20 I will even betroth thee unto me in faithfulness:
And thou shalt know the LORD.
21 And it shall come to pass in that day,
I will hear, saith the LORD, I will hear the heavens,
And they shall hear the earth;
22 And the earth shall hear the corn, and the wine, and the oil;
And they shall hear Jezreel.
23 And I will sow her unto me in the earth;
And I will have mercy upon her that had not obtained mercy;
And I will say to them which were not my people, Thou art my people;
And they shall say, Thou art my God.
Hosea 2:18–23.

In verse 19 God says His commitment as Husbandman is forever. And even though Israel has had a hot/cold/hot/cold relationship with their God they are eternally God's people and He will restore Israel His Bride and she will become holy when it is time to present herself to Christ:

25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the [Jewish] church, and gave himself for it;
26 That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word,
27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.
Eph 5:25–27.

God has covenant with Israel. God has no covenant with Gentiles also called "nations." Gentiles are nothing to God. Nada. God IS a respecter of persons and groups of persons.

17 All nations before him are as nothing;
And they are counted to him less than nothing, and vanity.
Isaiah 40:17.

8 Be merciful, O LORD, unto thy people Israel, whom thou hast redeemed, and lay not innocent blood unto thy people of Israel’s charge. And the blood shall be forgiven them.
Dt 21:8.

There's a reason why God is called the Holy One of ISRAEL. That's because God has covenant with Israel and knows Israel's failings and backslidings and He still is committed to this people. When Scripture identifies Israel as "Thy [God's] people" it is because God keeps His promises and one of those promises is to send a Deliverer to His people which He did in the Person of Jesus Christ and Christ dying as sacrifice to redeem Israel from sin and from themselves. It's a shame that you take everything God has with Israel and steal it and apply it all to Gentiles. Just be aware that judgment is coming to Gentiles and they shall not escape.

Seems your ethnic cleansing is out of step with God's plans

Acts 15:16–18 (NET) — 16 ‘After this I will return, and I will rebuild the fallen tent of David; I will rebuild its ruins and restore it, 17 so that the rest of humanity may seek the Lord, namely, all the Gentiles I have called to be my own,’ says the Lord, who makes these things 18 known from long ago.

A quote from the septuagint


Amos 9:11 (Brenton LXX En) — 11 In that day I will raise up the tabernacle of David that is fallen, and will rebuild the ruins of it, and will set up the parts thereof that have been broken down, and will build it up as in the ancient days:

Yes, that's because God has covenant with the Hebrew people.
God will remove Israel's blindness and then Israel will know their Messiah Jesus Christ and in the end Israel will populate the kingdom of heaven called New Jerusalem coming down from heaven.
When you come to receive that salvation is of the Jews and NOT the Gentiles then maybe you'll be ready to come to the knowledge of the truth.
Until then, Israel is not the only people that has spiritual blindness. But one thing no one can accuse Israel of and that is inheritance theft of Gentiles. Do you want to know why? That's because Gentiles have no covenant, no promises of salvation, and nothing they have to steal. Gentile nations are nothing to God.

17 All nations before him are as nothing; And they are counted to him less than nothing, and vanity. Isaiah 40:17.

Less than nothing.

 

[TomL]

World is a word that is neutral and depending on its usage and context does mean Hebrews just as it means Gentiles, and "inhabitants" or "age" or political system like Roman Empire.
I always see that when Gentiles want to include themselves erroneously into the Abrahamic Covenant, they always use NT passages but NEVER use the original OT Scripture where the covenant is made in Genesis 17. That's because where the covenant is made there are no Gentiles included but is a covenant made between God and Abraham and his Hebrew seed. The Abrahamic Covenant is between God, Abraham, and his seed a people later to be identified as the Jews.

There is not a lexicon om earth that defines world as Hebrew elect. It never has that meaning. You have an additional problem. Seeing as we are in the covenant and the old covenant has been superceeded you should be getting your beliefs primarily from the new covenant. It is completely absurd that you reverse it

You need to study more because you like to add to the bible a lot. But that's the Gentile mindset for you. They know in their heart of hearts there is NO COVENANT between God and Gentiles, and they oppose themselves by using NT Scripture and re-interpret it and add to the bible things not there.

Sorry I am not re-interpreting the new covenant. I follow it and you ignore it and refuse to let it determine your theology. Instead you feed your racist ideas and desired outcome

The old covenant is dead. Israel broke it. We are in the New covenant whether you like it or not

God's word is

Ephesians 2:13–20 (NASB 2020) — 13 But now in Christ Jesus you who previously were far away have been brought near by the blood of Christ. 14 For He Himself is our peace, who made both groups into one and broke down the barrier of the dividing wall, 15 by abolishing in His flesh the hostility, which is the Law composed of commandments expressed in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two one new person, in this way establishing peace; 16 and that He might reconcile them both in one body to God through the cross, by it having put to death the hostility. 17 AND HE CAME AND PREACHED PEACE TO YOU WHO WERE FAR AWAY, AND PEACE TO THOSE WHO WERE NEAR; 18 for through Him we both have our access in one Spirit to the Father. 19 So then you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but you are fellow citizens with the saints, and are of God’s household, 20 having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus Himself being the cornerstone,

and you are found in opposition to it.

 

[jeremiah1five]

There is not a lexicon om earth that defines world as Hebrew elect. It never has that meaning. You have an additional problem. Seeing as we are in the covenant and the old covenant has been superceeded you should be getting your beliefs primarily from the new covenant. It is completely absurd that you reverse it

The word "world" is not defined as "Hebrew." It is USED to identify Hebrews/Jews. Here is an example.

16 For God so loved the world [of Hebrews/Jews], that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever [of Hebrews/Jews] believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. Jn 3:16.

Jesus is speaking to a Jew named Nicodemus. The context is the "lost sheep of the House of Israel." These are the people Jesus was prophesied to and for. The animal sacrifices were strictly to and for the Jews. It is THEIR covenant. Jesus didn't come to change the Law meaning Jesus didn';t come to include Gentiles in His sacrificial atonement. Why would He. He wasn't sent to the Gentiles. He was a Jewish man prophesied to and for the Jews under the Mosaic Covenant just as the high priest did not go to Gentiles and offer sacrifices for Gentiles neither did Jesus change the purpose of the Law and die on a cross to and for Gentiles. To make Jesus' atonement to apply for Gentiles is to teach Jesus changed the Law and died for Gentiles and this is heresy and a lie. But that is what Gentiles teach when they interpret this Greek word and apply it to Gentiles. The ONLY WAY to interpret "world" here is to first teach the high priest after offering sacrifices to and for the Hebrew people under the Mosaic Law left and went to Gentiles and offered sacrifices for Gentiles and this is a lie and that's what Gentiles believe. Jesus didn't die for everybody in the whole wide planet. He died for the world of Jews. But that is part of the theft of the Messianic Atonement. That is theft of the covenants and Jesus Himself to be made also for Gentiles.

Sorry I am not re-interpreting the new covenant. I follow it and you ignore it and refuse to let it determine your theology. Instead you feed your racist ideas and desired outcome

You need to show me in the Scripture of the high priest leaving Israel and going to any Gentile nation that lived surrounding Israel and that high priest offering sacrifices for them. ONLY THEN can you make the atonement apply for Gentiles. But there is NONE. There is NO SCRIPTURE of Jesus, ISRAEL'S Messiah, Redeemer, and King leaving city limits and going to Italy and offering sacrifices for the Romans. It's not there. So, why make Jesus CHANGE to purpose of the God-instituted sacrificial Law to apply to them? But that's exactly what Gentiles teach and you're one of them that believe this. Well, you believe in a lie. and no lie is of the truth and no one that is a liar has eternal life in them.

The old covenant is dead. Israel broke it. We are in the New covenant whether you like it or not

The New Covenant is Jesus' command to His covenant people - Gentiles are NOT in covenant with God - that if they love Him to obey His commandments, His Torah, His Laws. Jesus as High Priest for the children of Israel taught the Jewish people the Law, He obeyed perfectly the Law and taught His people the Jews to obey the Law. If you want to say Israel broke the Law - which they have done, but their salvation doesn't rest in what THEY DO - it rests on the Promises of God, not in men. No man seeks God. Therefore, God has to seek them. And these are the elect of God, their names were written in the lamb's book of life before God created heaven, earth, or man.

God's word is

Ephesians 2:13–20 (NASB 2020) — 13 But now in Christ Jesus you who previously were far away have been brought near by the blood of Christ. 14 For He Himself is our peace, who made both groups into one and broke down the barrier of the dividing wall, 15 by abolishing in His flesh the hostility, which is the Law composed of commandments expressed in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two one new person, in this way establishing peace; 16 and that He might reconcile them both in one body to God through the cross, by it having put to death the hostility. 17 AND HE CAME AND PREACHED PEACE TO YOU WHO WERE FAR AWAY, AND PEACE TO THOSE WHO WERE NEAR; 18 for through Him we both have our access in one Spirit to the Father. 19 So then you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but you are fellow citizens with the saints, and are of God’s household, 20 having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus Himself being the cornerstone,

and you are found in opposition to it.

The Abrahamic Covenant is between God, Abraham, and Abraham's seed. The Scriptures record this over and over. It went from Abraham to Isaac to Jacob and to Jacob's children - all twelve tribes and the rest of Abraham's descendants. That's what the covenant says. God made NO COVENANT with the world of Gentiles. He made covenant with Abraham and HIS SEED and Gentiles are NOT HIS SEED. If you want to re-interpret the Abrahamic Covenant in Genesis 17:6 to include Gentiles as Abraham's seed, then you go ahead. You do that. And in doing that you are believing in heresy for Jesus Himself said He was sent to the lost sheep of the House of ISRAEL - NOT GENTILES.

7 And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed after thee. Gen. 17:6–7.

And AGAIN:
9 And God said unto Abraham, Thou shalt keep my covenant therefore, thou, and thy seed after thee in their generations. Gen. 17:9.

And AGAIN:
10 This is my covenant, which ye shall keep, between me and you and thy seed after thee; Every man child among you shall be circumcised. Gen. 17:10.

And AGAIN:
19 And God said, Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed; and thou shalt call his name Isaac: and I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant, and with his seed after him.
Gen. 17:19.

Scripture does not teach the Abrahamic Covenant is between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles. That is your error. That is the error of Gentiles who stole God's covenants, re-interpret His Word to make them apply to uncircumcised Gentiles. Gentiles have NEVER been in any of the Jewish Covenants and Jesus Christ did not die for the sins of Gentiles. He died for the covenant people of God - THE JEWS. Jesus is Jewish. He was prophesied to and for the Jews. He was born of two Jewish parents. He obeyed the Torah of God. He taught the Jews the Torah of God. And Jesus died to redeem THOSE WHO WETRE UNDER THE LAW as Scripture says and He succeeded in the purpose for which He was sent.

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Gal. 4:3–5.

Gentiles were NEVER under the Law so prove to me they were under the Law, and you win this argument.

PROVE IT.