Where did Hell/Hades/Sheol go?

[sawdust]

Going to Sheol is the result of a judgment. The implication is clear. The wicked are punished by being sent to Sheol instead of heaven. The word is translated as return 391 times by the biased KJV, just not here in this verse.

I never said the wicked were in heaven. I thought the statement that the "Paradise side is empty" clearly indicated that the other side (Torments) is still occupied. I do not see Sheol as a judgement but a consequence of what was necessary to hold souls because they had not been judged for their sin and had to wait for the Cross. Once sin was dealt with, the Lord God was free to judge men on their personal response to Him and the Christ for we had all been condemned on the basis of Adam's sin so that even if (by some miracle) we had no personal sin of our own, we still would be condemned. Therefore the Lord needed a place to hold souls until the Cross.

Acts 17:30&31
30 In the past God overlooked such ignorance, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent. 31 For he has set a day when he will judge the world with justice by the man he has appointed. He has given proof of this to everyone by raising him from the dead.”

Aside:
IF the wicked RETURN to Sheol, logic and ordinary use of language indicates that they were there before but left. We have humans coming from Sheol and then returning back to there. We also have Christ telling us that the good seed, the people of the kingdom are sown into the world by the Son of Man and the people of the evil one are sown into the world by the devil, Matt 13:36-39. Where were they before they were sown? And sown cannot mean to be created as the devil does this sowing also and he can't create people.

Does this explanation of the parable refer to the moving of people from Sheol attested to by Ps 9:17 and Psalm 139:11-15
15 My frame was not hidden from You,
When I was made in secret,
And skillfully wrought in the depths of the earth;
where Sheol is located? How can it be when orthodoxy has already declared from Rabbinical times it means something else and cannot be a reference hint to our pre-conception existence, PCE. And we also have the King James Bible to keep us straight (or to hide the fact of PCE?) about the orthodox interpretation, that is: The wicked shall be turned into (somewhat the opposite of to return) sheol, ignoring or refusing to mention shûb refers to a return to where they were before.

That is stretching things in my opinion. Of the 52 translations I looked at, only 8 said return the rest said either, depart; turn/go to; turn back; go down to. There is no clear indication that any of us began from Sheol. As you said, "sown" cannot mean created therefore I fail to see how your argument has merit. Rev1:18 clearly states only Christ can call people out from Sheol (Hades being the Greek equivalent)

Revelation 1:18
I am the Living One; I was dead, and now look, I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

The Matthew parable is a reference to the end of the age when people are separated based on who they followed. There is no reason, based on this parable, to think they were anywhere in existence before they were born.

As far as Psalm 139 is concerned, our bodies do come from the dust. They may not be formed directly by God as Adam's body was but they are still made from the same elements and it is God's blueprint and nothing in this world would exist if not for the grace of God. I think it is dangerous to develop a doctrine of pre-existence based on this verse especially in light of Genesis 1:26-28 where it is clear there is only one man and one woman created.