praise_yeshua
Well-known member
Not saying Wikipedia is an authoritative source... but below is a common argument made by Hebrew sources concerning ancient Hebrew.
Can anyone reconcile this claim to what Jesus told the Samaritan Woman "at the well"....
John 4:22 You worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.
Isn't it extraordinarily "odd" (to say the least) that Jesus would make such a statement to indicate the many mistakes of the Samaritans..... Yet, some "scholar" today would insist that the Proto-Hebrew language was "preserved perfectly" in the Samaritan alphabet?
Not to mention the absurd idea that Hebrews adopted the script of the Persian Empire..... Apart from self serving conjecture from "scholars"......
Just where is the evidence for such claims?
The Samaritans, who remained in the Land of Israel, continued to use the paleo-Hebrew alphabet. During the 3rd century BCE, Jews began to use a stylized, "square" form of the Aramaic alphabet that was used by the Persian Empire (and which in turn had been adopted from the Assyrians),[15] while the Samaritans continued to use a form of the paleo-Hebrew script called the Samaritan alphabet. After the fall of the Persian Empire in 330 BCE, Jews used both scripts before settling on the square Assyrian form.
Can anyone reconcile this claim to what Jesus told the Samaritan Woman "at the well"....
John 4:22 You worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.
Isn't it extraordinarily "odd" (to say the least) that Jesus would make such a statement to indicate the many mistakes of the Samaritans..... Yet, some "scholar" today would insist that the Proto-Hebrew language was "preserved perfectly" in the Samaritan alphabet?
Not to mention the absurd idea that Hebrews adopted the script of the Persian Empire..... Apart from self serving conjecture from "scholars"......
Just where is the evidence for such claims?