I can understand the mix-up, The Golden State has gotten quite tarnished. Not quite dead yet but on life support.I thought this was a thread about California, my bad.
That's the reason for the mass Exodus from California. Not to mention all the businesses that are shutting down because of Big Brother.I can understand the mix-up, The Golden State has gotten quite tarnished. Not quite dead yet but on life support.
thanks Chris'We are confident, I say,
and willing rather
to be absent from the body,
and to be present with the Lord.'
(2Cor. 5:8)
Hello @Jamie Russell,
I confess to rushing through the listening of this YouTube link, but I gleaned enough to know that I was in agreement with what was being said within it concerning the state of the dead, re. 2 Corinthians 5:8. It is good to see someone entering on this subject.
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
lolI thought this was a thread about California, my bad.
wordThat's the reason for the mass Exodus from California. Not to mention all the businesses that are shutting down because of Big Brother.
I agree, good explanation'But as touching the resurrection of the dead,
have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying,
I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob?
God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.'
( Mat 22:31- see also Mark 12:27 & Luke 20:38 )
Hello again, @Jamie Russell,
I came on to enter regarding the words, 'The God of the Living' (above), but found your thread, and thought I would incorporate what I wanted to say within it, for it concerns the state of the dead.
* In these scriptures it is stated that 'God is not the God of the dead, but of the living'. But Traditionists, believing that the 'dead' are 'the living', make God the 'God of the dead', which He distinctly says He is not. Interpreting the words in this way, they ignore the whole context, which shows that the words refer to the RESURRECTION, and not to the dead at all. Notice how this is emphasized in each Gospel:-
* 'Then come unto Him the Sadducees, which say there is no Resurrection' (Matt. 22:23; Mark 12:18; Luke 20:27).
The one issue raised by the Sadducees was the question, 'Whose wife shall she be in the Resurrection?' (Matt.22:28; Mark 12:23; Luke 20:33).
The answer of our Lord deals with this one issue, which was 'Resurrection'. He says:-
Matt. 22:- '... as touching the Resurrection of the dead' (v.31)
Mark 12:- '... as touching the dead that they Rise' (v.26)
Luke 20:- '... now that the dead are Raised, even Moses showed at the bush, when he called the Lord, the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, for He is not the God of the dead, but of the living, for all live unto him;' (v.38).
* These words were spoken by the Lord Jesus in order to prove 'that the dead are Raised'. Traditionists use them to prove that the dead are 'living' without being Raised!
* The Sadducees may have denied many other things, but the one and only thing in question here is Resurrection. Christ's argument was:-
1) God's words at the bush prove a life for the dead patriarchs.
2) But there is no life for the dead without a resurrection.
3) Therefore they must be Raised From The Dead; or 'live again' by Him.
* This argument held good, for it silenced the Sadducees. For if they are 'living' now, and not dead, how does that prove a Resurrection?
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
You beat me with this idea by 5 months.I thought this was a thread about California, my bad.
Matthew 22:32 (LEB) — 32 “I am the God of Abraham and the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob”? He is not the God of the dead, but of the living!”
How is it you attempt to turn the topic about the state of the dead into a topic of your denial of the New covenant and the incorporation of the Gentiles into the peoples of God?It is hypocritical to give God over to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob in one sentence and then give Him over to non-Hebrew Gentiles in the next sentence. That's called being dishonest with the HEBREW Scripture. It only suits their purpose when it suits their purpose instead of accepting what is written and come to the knowledge of the truth.
I don't incorporate Gentiles into the "peoples of God" because God doesn't incorporate all peoples into the peoples of God.How is it you attempt to turn the topic about the state of the dead into a topic of your denial of the New covenant and the incorporation of the Gentiles into the peoples of God?
You don't but God didI don't incorporate Gentiles into the "peoples of God" because God doesn't incorporate all peoples into the peoples of God.
God is dealing with ONE PEOPLE:
6 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth.
Deuteronomy 7:6.
and that people are identified as the children of Israel - all thirteen tribes.
Israel possesses the covenants as says the Scripture. Gentiles got nothing coming to them of God.
4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth
the adoption,
and the glory,
and the covenants,
and the giving of the law,
and the service of God,
and the promises;
5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh
Christ came,
who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.
Rom. 9:4–5.
The above encapsulates everything having to do with redemption and salvation.
Saul uses "Greek" and not "Gentile" because his audience were Hebrews who grew up in Gentile lands heavily influenced by Greek culture.You don't but God did
Galatians 3:28 (LEB) — 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
Um sorry but it is nonsense to imagine Paul simply contrasts Hebrews with Greek HebrewsSaul uses "Greek" and not "Gentile" because his audience were Hebrews who grew up in Gentile lands heavily influenced by Greek culture.
His terminology and concepts were still Hebrew translated to a Greek-speaking audience. God made no covenant with Gentiles. That should be your first basis of interpretation.