Scriptural Baptism

Paul seemed to assume at first they were already believers, yet why would Paul go on to say,. “John indeed baptized with a baptism of repentance, saying to the people that they should believe on Him who would come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus" if they truly were already believers? Also, why the need to baptize them again if they truly were already believers?

Well, Apollos was mighty in the scriptures, but needed to be expounded the right way by Aquilla and Priscilla. In Acts 18:27.. he came to Achaia and was received by disciples who had believed through grace.

He knew only the baptism of John. John's baptism was the in between from OT to NT. After John, baptism became the ordinance of the New Testament local church.. So Paul would need to re-baptise because these disciples were not baptised under the right authority of a New Testament church. There was nothing wrong with the baptism John was administering.. but there came a point where future believers would need to be baptised in a different NT authority.

But again.. John was baptising with those he baptised professing belief in Jesus as God and Saviour. If these disciples in Acts 19 were going by that baptism.. they would have also believed. This is confirmed when it says they had 'believed thru grace'.

The part where I could be wrong on this.. is if the disciples in Acts 19 and the disciples in Acts 18 are different groups. But in Acts 19.. it is assumed they had believed. Their belief isn't the question... the baptism is.
 
Well, Apollos was mighty in the scriptures, but needed to be expounded the right way by Aquilla and Priscilla. In Acts 18:27.. he came to Achaia and was received by disciples who had believed through grace.

He knew only the baptism of John. John's baptism was the in between from OT to NT. After John, baptism became the ordinance of the New Testament local church.. So Paul would need to re-baptise because these disciples were not baptised under the right authority of a New Testament church. There was nothing wrong with the baptism John was administering.. but there came a point where future believers would need to be baptised in a different NT authority.

But again.. John was baptising with those he baptised professing belief in Jesus as God and Saviour. If these disciples in Acts 19 were going by that baptism.. they would have also believed. This is confirmed when it says they had 'believed thru grace'.

The part where I could be wrong on this.. is if the disciples in Acts 19 and the disciples in Acts 18 are different groups. But in Acts 19.. it is assumed they had believed. Their belief isn't the question... the baptism is.
I would disagree

Barne's for example notes

And finding certain disciples. Certain persons who had been baptized into John’s baptism, and who had embraced John’s doctrine that the Messiah was soon to appear, ver. 3, 4. It is very clear that they had not yet heard that he had come, or that the Holy Ghost was given. They were evidently in the same situation as Apollos. See Notes on ch. 18:25.
2. Have ye received the Holy Ghost? Have ye received the extraordinary effusions and miraculous influences of the Holy Ghost? Paul would not doubt that, if they had “believed,” they had received the ordinary converting influences of the Holy Spirit—for it was one of his favourite doctrines that the Holy Spirit renews the heart. But, besides this, the miraculous influences of the Spirit were conferred on many societies of believers. The power of speaking with tongues, or of working miracles, was imparted as an evidence of the presence of God, and of their acceptance with him, ch. 10:45, 46; 1 Co. 14. It was natural for Paul to ask whether this evidence of the divine favour has been granted to them


Albert Barnes, Notes on the New Testament: Acts (ed. Robert Frew; London: Blackie & Son, 1884–1885), 274–275.
 
But again.. John was baptising with those he baptised professing belief in Jesus as God and Saviour. If these disciples in Acts 19 were going by that baptism.. they would have also believed. This is confirmed when it says they had 'believed thru grace'.

The part where I could be wrong on this.. is if the disciples in Acts 19 and the disciples in Acts 18 are different groups. But in Acts 19.. it is assumed they had believed. Their belief isn't the question... the baptism is.
Whatever the disciples in Acts 19:2 believed at that point about Jesus must have been incomplete. They may not have understood the significance of Christ's death, burial and resurrection or the ministry of the Holy Spirit. They had not even so much as heard whether there is a Holy Spirit and Paul had to explain to them, “John indeed baptized with a baptism of repentance, saying to the people that they should believe on Him who would come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.” When they hear this, they were afterwards baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. When Paul had laid hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke with tongues and prophesied. The laying on of hands is the exception (as in Acts 8) and not the rule in every case of conversion.
 
Sorry.
Maybe I misunderstood.
I thought you may have been referring to the water baptism that some think will save them.

Ephesians 4:5-6

5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
Ephesians 4:5 - One Lord, one faith, one baptism.

1 Corinthians 12:13 - For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free—and have all been made to drink into one Spirit.
 
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