Behold
Well-known member
You are telling me that it is 1 John 1:9 that applies to me "If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness."
How do you know that this verse is not talking to a CHRISTian?
Its because The Cross of Christ has already paid for all of a Christian's sin, = 2000 yrs ago.
How does this apply when we are also told in Heb 10:26 "For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins,
What sin is that?
That is the sin of rejecting Christ......and doing it "willfully".
If you read Acts 28:28, you'll find that this verse is detailing the Hebrews 10 situation, and its not talking to Christians.
Also..
Apostles would not be trying to get you to receive Christ, if you are already a Christian.......So, in Heb 6 & 10, you find Christ rejectors.. (HEBREWS) ..being admonished because they are refusing their MESSIAH.........not Christians.
1. I then would have gone from born again, cannot sin.
Reader..
where is SIN found?
Where is it Discovered?
Its discovered "under the Law".. as its the LAW that defines sin, and sinners..
So, if there is no LAW.. then can it accuse you of sin? Can it define you as a sinner? ?????????????
A.) "where there is NO LAW... there is no SIN found..(Transgression).."""""
AA.) The Born again..>""""are NOT UNDER THE LAW... but under Grace"".
AAA.) """Jesus has redeemed (the born again) from the CURSE of the Law"""
What is that curse?
The curse is that the Law defines your works of the flesh as sin, and you as a sinner.
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Welcome To : Salvation..
= """"you are NOT UNDER THE LAW.....but under Grace"""".
This means you exist as born again, into the KOG.. and that means..
= "Where there is no LAW.. there is no Transgression".