Gal 3:19-20 Solved by the Shema in light of Christ's Divinity

mikesw

Well-known member
Summary Explanation of Gal 3:19-20
by Mike Whitney ( 2023 version)

The Gal 3:19-20 passage has posed quite the challenge over nearly 2000 years since the letter was written. It is possible that certain points earlier in the letter led to confusion about the meaning of Gal 3:20. I hope to share a simple message of the verse 20 while explaining some of the decisions that had helped understand the verse. If this short paragraph does not give sufficient insight into the passage, the long description follows...

The message of Gal. 3:20 can be understood after recognizing that the phrase the "mediator is not of one" presents a riddle to the reader. The wording is connected with the definition of a mediator, but instead of providing a direct statement about two parties in a mediatorship, the converse statement reads that the mediator is not of one. With the consideration that the promise of Gal. 3:16 ostensibly involves two parties, God and Christ, the mediator of one is solved by interpreting the Shema (as appearing in verse 20) in light of the deity of Christ. The use of the Shema (Deut 6:4) indicates that no mediator is possible because the promisor (the Father) and promisee (the Son) are one in the Godhead. Therefore, Paul reaffirms the message of Gal. 3:17–18 by conveying that the Law of Moses can have no salvific (justifying) role in the time of the promise (when the Christ came to us). The era of the Law ended now that Christ has come. This verse presents the earliest written reference to the trinitarian concept of Christ’s equality in the Godhead.

In Galatians 3:19 Paul begins with the question: Why then the Law? He uses the question as a step to show that the Law has no justification role for the Christian. He first shows that the Law’s era ends at the appearance of Christ among humanity. He repeats the idea in v 20 but this time using a riddle. The riddle appears unexpectedly. The recognition of the riddle is necessary for several reasons: first, because of the confusing wording of verse 20 and, next, by process of elimination. The direct readings have not resulted in a consensus of meaning for both phrases of the verse.
The earlier verses set the tone by showing that the Mosaic Law neither replaces the promise nor modifies the promise (vv 17-18). So the Law and promise appear in contrast to each other. Especially important is how Paul shows (v 16) the promise being from God the Father to Christ the Son. Abraham subsequently drops out of the picture after v 18. Since Christ is of the Godhead, the promise exists between persons of the Godhead.
Verse 19 first answers the need for the Law. The answer is rather basic. The Israelites’ disobedience to earlier commands (in the wilderness) required a mediator to provide the Law to mend the relationship between God and the Israelites. The Law’s era ended with the arrival of Christ, to whom the promise was made. In this verse various aspects are emphasized: Christ, the promise, the Law, and mediation. The angels appear only as a popular conception of how the Law came about, but the angels have no other significance here. As to the mediation, we can easily understand there are two parties involved, namely God and Israel. This helps setup the riddle.
Verse 20 says “but the mediator is not of one” and thus counters the possibility of mediation, as done with the Law. This statement presents challenges starting with the Greek but has a form similar to saying: “The soldier must be trained to arms.”1 Paul presents the definition instead of providing a clear message;2 he gives a clue for a riddle.3 Other interpretations may treat this point about the mediator as a direct response, but these do not tend to fully explain why Paul includes the phrase, “but God is one.”
The first reaction to the mention of a mediator is that the promise has two parties, but for some reason, Paul has suggested there is only one party. The verse reinforces this oneness with the words, “but God is one.” This phrase is an abbreviated version of the Shema found in Deut 6:4. When modifying the Shema in light of Christ, the Godhead is one, but now while recognizing the deity of Christ, Christ is a second person in the Godhead. So, the Shema reflects oneness and duality. The promise then only has one party, namely the Godhead, and thus there is no mediator possible between God the Father and Christ the Son.
The direct solution of the riddle indicates that a mediator (with the Law in hand) cannot have a role between God the Father and Christ the Son. No conflict can occur between persons of the Godhead. The ultimate message, then, is that the Law cannot have a salvific role for people under the promise, basically the Christians. Especially recognized in this message is that men do not have to be circumcised as a requirement for justification.
Likely this explanation has been missed due to several issues. People don’t expect a riddle here, nor do they have the deity of Christ in focus when encountering the Shema phrase.4 Other aspects can affect the reading, such as expecting the promise in verse 20 to be focused on Abraham or, historically, of the mediator being viewed as Jesus.
The riddle probably was designed with some encryption against outsiders rather than making the text difficult, though Paul arguably wrote the message too narrowly to be understood by people in later years. Even yet, the detailed analysis can explain the text while also making its solution appear overly difficult.5 Hopefully after the explanation is shared, a re-reading of the verse can result in a clear recognition, without the complex details in mind.
 
Summary Explanation of Gal 3:19-20
by Mike Whitney ( 2023 version)

The Gal 3:19-20 passage has posed quite the challenge over nearly 2000 years since the letter was written. It is possible that certain points earlier in the letter led to confusion about the meaning of Gal 3:20. I hope to share a simple message of the verse 20 while explaining some of the decisions that had helped understand the verse. If this short paragraph does not give sufficient insight into the passage, the long description follows...

The message of Gal. 3:20 can be understood after recognizing that the phrase the "mediator is not of one" presents a riddle to the reader. The wording is connected with the definition of a mediator, but instead of providing a direct statement about two parties in a mediatorship, the converse statement reads that the mediator is not of one. With the consideration that the promise of Gal. 3:16 ostensibly involves two parties, God and Christ, the mediator of one is solved by interpreting the Shema (as appearing in verse 20) in light of the deity of Christ. The use of the Shema (Deut 6:4) indicates that no mediator is possible because the promisor (the Father) and promisee (the Son) are one in the Godhead. Therefore, Paul reaffirms the message of Gal. 3:17–18 by conveying that the Law of Moses can have no salvific (justifying) role in the time of the promise (when the Christ came to us). The era of the Law ended now that Christ has come. This verse presents the earliest written reference to the trinitarian concept of Christ’s equality in the Godhead.

In Galatians 3:19 Paul begins with the question: Why then the Law? He uses the question as a step to show that the Law has no justification role for the Christian. He first shows that the Law’s era ends at the appearance of Christ among humanity. He repeats the idea in v 20 but this time using a riddle. The riddle appears unexpectedly. The recognition of the riddle is necessary for several reasons: first, because of the confusing wording of verse 20 and, next, by process of elimination. The direct readings have not resulted in a consensus of meaning for both phrases of the verse.
The earlier verses set the tone by showing that the Mosaic Law neither replaces the promise nor modifies the promise (vv 17-18). So the Law and promise appear in contrast to each other. Especially important is how Paul shows (v 16) the promise being from God the Father to Christ the Son. Abraham subsequently drops out of the picture after v 18. Since Christ is of the Godhead, the promise exists between persons of the Godhead.
Verse 19 first answers the need for the Law. The answer is rather basic. The Israelites’ disobedience to earlier commands (in the wilderness) required a mediator to provide the Law to mend the relationship between God and the Israelites. The Law’s era ended with the arrival of Christ, to whom the promise was made. In this verse various aspects are emphasized: Christ, the promise, the Law, and mediation. The angels appear only as a popular conception of how the Law came about, but the angels have no other significance here. As to the mediation, we can easily understand there are two parties involved, namely God and Israel. This helps setup the riddle.
Verse 20 says “but the mediator is not of one” and thus counters the possibility of mediation, as done with the Law. This statement presents challenges starting with the Greek but has a form similar to saying: “The soldier must be trained to arms.”1 Paul presents the definition instead of providing a clear message;2 he gives a clue for a riddle.3 Other interpretations may treat this point about the mediator as a direct response, but these do not tend to fully explain why Paul includes the phrase, “but God is one.”
The first reaction to the mention of a mediator is that the promise has two parties, but for some reason, Paul has suggested there is only one party. The verse reinforces this oneness with the words, “but God is one.” This phrase is an abbreviated version of the Shema found in Deut 6:4. When modifying the Shema in light of Christ, the Godhead is one, but now while recognizing the deity of Christ, Christ is a second person in the Godhead. So, the Shema reflects oneness and duality. The promise then only has one party, namely the Godhead, and thus there is no mediator possible between God the Father and Christ the Son.
The direct solution of the riddle indicates that a mediator (with the Law in hand) cannot have a role between God the Father and Christ the Son. No conflict can occur between persons of the Godhead. The ultimate message, then, is that the Law cannot have a salvific role for people under the promise, basically the Christians. Especially recognized in this message is that men do not have to be circumcised as a requirement for justification.
Likely this explanation has been missed due to several issues. People don’t expect a riddle here, nor do they have the deity of Christ in focus when encountering the Shema phrase.4 Other aspects can affect the reading, such as expecting the promise in verse 20 to be focused on Abraham or, historically, of the mediator being viewed as Jesus.
The riddle probably was designed with some encryption against outsiders rather than making the text difficult, though Paul arguably wrote the message too narrowly to be understood by people in later years. Even yet, the detailed analysis can explain the text while also making its solution appear overly difficult.5 Hopefully after the explanation is shared, a re-reading of the verse can result in a clear recognition, without the complex details in mind.
Do you think that Jesus was sent in fulfillment of the promise to curse us by freeing us to be doers what God's law says is wickedness or to bless us by turning us from being doers of what God's law says is wickedness?
 
Do you think that Jesus was sent in fulfillment of the promise to curse us by freeing us to be doers what God's law says is wickedness or to bless us by turning us from being doers of what God's law says is wickedness?
I'm not sure how your question relates to what Paul said. But if you are under the law you remain a slave.
 
I'm not sure how your question relates to what Paul said. But if you are under the law you remain a slave.
You claimed that the era of law has ended now that Christ has come, which would mean that he came in fulfillment of the promise to free us so that we could be doers of what the law says is wickedness, so I am wanting to confirm the reason why you think that Jesus was sent in fulfillment of the promise.
 
You claimed that the era of law has ended now that Christ has come, which would mean that he came in fulfillment of the promise to free us so that we could be doers of what the law says is wickedness, so I am wanting to confirm the reason why you think that Jesus was sent in fulfillment of the promise.
I'm not sure what you are finding wrong with Paul's argument. He said the law came in as the act of mediation between God and the Israel tribes but that we directly are benefiting from the promise to Abraham. Are you a child of Abraham or a child of wickedness?
Ok. Some nicer questions would be these ones. Did you come to Christ enjoying his grace? Next, did you start killing people and stealing from people as an opportunity because you received grace through Christ? I'm not aware of people that have come to Christ for that reason, even though they are not under the Mosaic law.
 
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I'm not sure what you are finding wrong with Paul's argument.
I'm not finding anything wrong with Paul's argument, but with your understanding of his argument.

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and God's law was how hi6s audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom, which is in accordance with Jesus being sent in fulfillment of the promise to bless us by turning us from our wickedness (Acts 3:25-26), which is the Gospel of the Kingdom that was made known in advance to Abraham in accordance with the promise (Galatians 3:8), and which he spread to Gentiles in Haran in accordance with the promise (Genesis 12:1-5).

In Genesis 18:19, God knew Abraham that he would teach his children and those of His household to walk in His way by doing righteousness and justice that the Lord may bring to him all that He has promised. In Genesis 26:4-5, God will multiply Abraham's children as the stars in the heaven, to his children He will give all of these lands, and which his children all of the nations of the earth will be blessed because Abraham heard God's voice and guarded His charge, His commandments, His statutes, and His laws. In Deuteronomy 30:16, if the children of Abraham will love God with all of their heart by walking in His way in obedience to His commandments, statutes, and laws, then they will live and multiply and God will bless them in the land that they go to possess. So the promise was made to Abraham and brought about because he walked in God's way in obedience to His law, he taught his children and those of his household to do that in accordance with spreading the Gospel of the Kingdom, and because they did that.

In Psalms 119:1-3, God's law is how the children of Abraham know how to be blessed, and in John 8:39, Jesu said that if they were children of Abraham, then they would be doing the same works as him, so the way that the children of Abraham and multiplied and are a blessing to the nations in accordance with inheriting the promise through faith is by turning the nations from their wickedness and teaching them to do the same works as Abraham by walking in God's way in obedience to His law. So while we do not earn the promise as the result of our obedience to God's law, that does not mean that the content of the promise is not in regard to obeying God's law.
But if you are under the law you remain a slave.
In Romans 6:16, we are a slave to the one whom we obey, either to sin, which leads to death, or obedience, which leads to righteousness.

He said the law came in as the act of mediation between God and the Israel tribes but that we directly are benefiting from the promise to Abraham. Are you a child of Abraham or a child of wickedness?
Ok. Some nicer questions would be these ones. Did you come to Christ enjoying his grace? Next, did you start killing people and stealing from people as an opportunity because you received grace through Christ? I'm not aware of people that have come to Christ for that reason, even though they are not under the Mosaic law.
I am a children of Abraham. I do enjoy Christ's grace. In Psalms 119:29, he wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him to obey His law, so while I did not start killing people and stealing from people as an opportunity because I received grace through Christ, the position that we are not under the Mosaic Law is the position that we are free to start doing what it reveals to be wickedness.
 
I'm not finding anything wrong with Paul's argument, but with your understanding of his argument.

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and God's law was how hi6s audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom, which is in accordance with Jesus being sent in fulfillment of the promise to bless us by turning us from our wickedness (Acts 3:25-26), which is the Gospel of the Kingdom that was made known in advance to Abraham in accordance with the promise (Galatians 3:8), and which he spread to Gentiles in Haran in accordance with the promise (Genesis 12:1-5).

In Genesis 18:19, God knew Abraham that he would teach his children and those of His household to walk in His way by doing righteousness and justice that the Lord may bring to him all that He has promised. In Genesis 26:4-5, God will multiply Abraham's children as the stars in the heaven, to his children He will give all of these lands, and which his children all of the nations of the earth will be blessed because Abraham heard God's voice and guarded His charge, His commandments, His statutes, and His laws. In Deuteronomy 30:16, if the children of Abraham will love God with all of their heart by walking in His way in obedience to His commandments, statutes, and laws, then they will live and multiply and God will bless them in the land that they go to possess. So the promise was made to Abraham and brought about because he walked in God's way in obedience to His law, he taught his children and those of his household to do that in accordance with spreading the Gospel of the Kingdom, and because they did that.

In Psalms 119:1-3, God's law is how the children of Abraham know how to be blessed, and in John 8:39, Jesu said that if they were children of Abraham, then they would be doing the same works as him, so the way that the children of Abraham and multiplied and are a blessing to the nations in accordance with inheriting the promise through faith is by turning the nations from their wickedness and teaching them to do the same works as Abraham by walking in God's way in obedience to His law. So while we do not earn the promise as the result of our obedience to God's law, that does not mean that the content of the promise is not in regard to obeying God's law.

In Romans 6:16, we are a slave to the one whom we obey, either to sin, which leads to death, or obedience, which leads to righteousness.


I am a children of Abraham. I do enjoy Christ's grace. In Psalms 119:29, he wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him to obey His law, so while I did not start killing people and stealing from people as an opportunity because I received grace through Christ, the position that we are not under the Mosaic Law is the position that we are free to start doing what it reveals to be wickedness.
If you follow the guidance of Abraham in Gen 18, that is decent. If you want to live under Moses, you are a bit late and it is kind of odd to subject yourself to Moses when we have Jesus. Your complaint is not against me but against Paul. all I have done is restate what Paul said and explained the part where Paul refers to the divinity of Christ. If you think Paul said something other than what is in Gal 3:15-20, you can certainly share that. I think that is part of the reason this forum is here.
Paul however does not reject guidance from the law as we see in 2 Tim 3:16-17. If someone is acting way out of line, Timothy was given some wisdom for using it with people.
 
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The use of the Shema (Deut 6:4) indicates that no mediator is possible because the promisor (the Father) and promisee (the Son) are one in the Godhead.
In Deuteronomy 6:4-7, the way to love God with all of our heart, mind, and soul is by putting God's commands on our heart, teaching them diligently to our children, talking of them when we sin in our house, and when we walk by the way, and when we lie down, and when we rise.

Therefore, Paul reaffirms the message of Gal. 3:17–18 by conveying that the Law of Moses can have no salvific (justifying) role in the time of the promise (when the Christ came to us). The era of the Law ended now that Christ has come. This verse presents the earliest written reference to the trinitarian concept of Christ’s equality in the Godhead.
In Galatians 3:18-19, it notably does not say anything about the era of the law ending now that Christ has come or about denying that the Law of Moses can have a salvia role in the time of the promise. Our salvation is is from sin (Matthew 1:21) and it is by the Mosaic Law that we have knowledge of sin (Romans 3:20), so the position that the era of the Mosaic Law has ended s the position that we don't need to repent from our sins, we don't need salvation from sin, we don't need Jesus to have give himself to redeem us from all lawlessness, and that we don't need the Gospel. Christ did not go around telling people to stop repenting because the law has ended now that he has come, but rather he called for us to repent from our sins, which again in accordance with Jesus being sent in fulfillment of the promise to bless us by turning us from our wickedness and not being sent to free us so that we could become doers of wickedness (Acts 3:25-26). In Galatians 3:16-19, a new covenant does not nullify the promise of a covenant that has already been ratified, so it is also true that the New Covenant does not nullify our need to obey God's law in connection with the promise.


In Galatians 3:19 Paul begins with the question: Why then the Law? He uses the question as a step to show that the Law has no justification role for the Christian. He first shows that the Law’s era ends at the appearance of Christ among humanity. He repeats the idea in v 20 but this time using a riddle. The riddle appears unexpectedly. The recognition of the riddle is necessary for several reasons: first, because of the confusing wording of verse 20 and, next, by process of elimination. The direct readings have not resulted in a consensus of meaning for both phrases of the verse.
In Romans 2:13, Paul said that only doers of the law will be justified. Christ set a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to the Mosaic Law and as his followers we are told to follow his example (1 Peter 2:21-22) and that those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked, so Galatians 3:16-20 should not be interpreted as speaking against following what Christ spent his ministry teaching by word and by example and as being contrary to other verses that speak about the promise like Acts 3:25-26.

The earlier verses set the tone by showing that the Mosaic Law neither replaces the promise nor modifies the promise (vv 17-18). So the Law and promise appear in contrast to each other. Especially important is how Paul shows (v 16) the promise being from God the Father to Christ the Son. Abraham subsequently drops out of the picture after v 18. Since Christ is of the Godhead, the promise exists between persons of the Godhead.
While we do not earn the promise as the result of our obedience to the Mosaic Law, that doesn't mean that Paul was contrasting the Mosaic Law with the promise, especially because the content of the promise is in regard to blessing people by teaching them to obey it.

If you follow the guidance of Abraham in Gen 18, that is decent. If you want to live under Moses, you are a bit late and it is kind of odd to subject yourself to Moses when we have Jesus. Your complaint is not against me but against Paul. all I have done is restate what Paul said and explained the part where Paul refers to the divinity of Christ. If you think Paul said something other than what is in Gal 3:15-20, you can certainly share that. I think that is part of the reason this forum is here.
Paul however does not reject guidance from the law as we see in 2 Tim 3:16-17. If someone is acting way out of line, Timothy was given some wisdom for using it with people.
Both Abraham and Moses spread the Gospel of the Kingdom by turning people from their wickedness and teaching them to obey God's law. Jesus spent his ministry teaching his followers to obey the Mosaic Law by word and by example, so it shouldn't be odd to think that having Jesus involves following what he taught. The Mosaic Law is God's word and Jesus is God's word made flesh, so the way to have Jesus is not by rejecting God's word, but just the opposite. My complaint is definitely with you rather than with Paul because you are taking his words to mean something that he did not say.
 
Nothing you have said is of interest in explaining Paul's words in Gal 3:15-20. If you can share what Paul was saying without interpreting it with all that baggage you brought in, just share what Paul said. I am just presenting an explanation of vv 19-20 that have otherwise had much controversy of interpretations.
 
Nothing you have said is of interest in explaining Paul's words in Gal 3:15-20. If you can share what Paul was saying without interpreting it with all that baggage you brought in, just share what Paul said. I am just presenting an explanation of vv 19-20 that have otherwise had much controversy of interpretations.
Context is not baggage. These verses should be interpreted in a way that is in accordance with each other rather than a way that contradict each other:

Galatians 3:19-20 Why then the law? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made, and it was put in place through angels by an intermediary. 20 Now an intermediary implies more than one, but God is one.

Acts 3:25-26 You are the sons of the prophets and of the covenant that God made with your fathers, saying to Abraham, ‘And in your offspring shall all the families of the earth be blessed.’ 26 God, having raised up his servant, sent him to you first, to bless you by turning every one of you from your wickedness.”

It is contradictory to think that Jesus was sent in fulfillment of the promise to turn us from our wickedness and that he was sent to do away with the Law of God that teaches to turn from our wickedness. It shouldn't make sense to interpret Galatians 3:19-20 in a way that undermines everything that Jesus spent his ministry teaching by word and by example and that he accomplished through the cross. Jesus did not come to do away with our salvation. In Matthew 7:23, Jesus said that he would tell those who are workers of lawlessness to depart from him because he never knew them, so God's law leads us to Christ because it is God's instructions for how to know Him, but it does not lead us to Christ so that we can then be free to do what it reveals to be sin.
 
I could respond with the whole Bible to show the problems of your interpretation. However, it is more useful that you interpret Gal 3:19-20 in its context instead of talking about everything else that is not pertinent here. If you just are saying that Paul is wrong, that is your option. It will not help understanding what he has said. And I should note for the record that I am not sons of the prophets nor do I have any known covenant inherited from my ancestors. Maybe that will help you realize verses that do not apply to me nor to the Galatian gentiles.
 
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I could respond with the whole Bible to show the problems of your interpretation. However, it is more useful that you interpret Gal 3:19-20 in its context instead of talking about everything else that is not pertinent here. If you just are saying that Paul is wrong, that is your option. It will not help understanding what he has said.
God's word shouldn't be interpreted as speaking against obeying God's word. In Galatians 3:16-20, a new covenant does not nullify the promise of a covenant that has always been ratified, but your are interpreting those verses as nulifying the promise, so I am not saying that Paul is wrong, but that your misunderstanding of him is wrong.
 
God's word shouldn't be interpreted as speaking against obeying God's word. In Galatians 3:16-20, a new covenant does not abolish the promise of a covenant that has always been ratified, but your are interpreting those verses as abolishing the promise, so I am not saying that Paul is wrong, but that your misunderstanding of him is wrong.
May I repeat what I said earlier? Please explain what Paul is saying, since you seem to have some theory of what his argument is. There really is not anything to respond to without straying off topic from what Paul said. Also, I'm not sure what covenant you are suggesting was abolished. That idea is ludicrous. Paul does not talk about a covenant being abolished. I would join you with rebuking whoever held to that idea.
 
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The other guidance on this topic is to let Paul's message be the main guiding point. Treat him as a premium interpreter of scriptures in light of what he speaks within this passage. If some aspect is ambiguous, figure out the best initial concept of what he says in 3:19-20 (for example) and then address the ambiguity with other sources.
 
You claimed that the era of law has ended now that Christ has come, which would mean that he came in fulfillment of the promise to free us so that we could be doers of what the law says is wickedness, so I am wanting to confirm the reason why you think that Jesus was sent in fulfillment of the promise.
Your response here was a bit helpful. I have tried to word this in a fashion that would accommodate people that saw the Mosaic law as somehow central in the Messianic era. Apparently this wording does not satisfy everyone. The other purpose for this wording is that the Mosaic law still exists on paper, so it is not like the Mosaic law disappeared.
 
the position that we are not under the Mosaic Law is the position that we are free to start doing what it reveals to be wickedness.
I’m interpreting this to be saying that since we are no longer under law, that we are free to do what the law says we shouldn’t do. Is this what you are trying to say?

I don’t see how “we are free to start doing what it [the law] reveals to be wickedness” can be interpreted as anything other than “we are free to sin!”

Doug
 
I’m interpreting this to be saying that since we are no longer under law, that we are free to do what the law says we shouldn’t do. Is this what you are trying to say?

I don’t see how “we are free to start doing what it [the law] reveals to be wickedness” can be interpreted as anything other than “we are free to sin!”

Doug

Tell me this. Did you become a Christian so you could do all sorts of fleshly behavior or did you come because Christ has called you with hope of you being a decent person? If you need the law to be a decent person, then you are still a slave to the flesh.

Anyhow. I am showing how the Gal 3:19-20 can make sense as it refers to the deity of Christ. I'm sharing what it seems that Paul is saying. If you feel this is telling you to get in the flesh, I would have to differ from your take on this.
 
Tell me this. Did you become a Christian so you could do all sorts of fleshly behavior or did you come because Christ has called you with hope of you being a decent person? If you need the law to be a decent person, then you are still a slave to the flesh.

Anyhow. I am showing how the Gal 3:19-20 can make sense as it refers to the deity of Christ. I'm sharing what it seems that Paul is saying. If you feel this is telling you to get in the flesh, I would have to differ from your take on this.
My comments were in response to @Soyeong comments, not yours.

Doug
 
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