Bible Contradictions (ever heard this one before from skeptics?)

[jeremiah1five]

Yes, jeremiah. Today, during the dispensation of grace, God is extending His grace to all of humanity.
Haven't you read 1 Timothy 2:3-4?

Which "book" of the Old Testament is written to non-Hebrew Gentiles?
None.
Words like "all men" or "the world" or similar statements can only be interpreted in light to WHOM God's Word through the prophets is given or sent to - the children of Israel.
The same is true of the New Covenant letters. The New Covenant applies to the House of Israel (ten northern kingdom tribes), and the House of Judah (two southern kingdom tribes.) It was written by Jews and they discuss, interpret, explain the New Covenant to fellow Jews and Jewish Christians.
At Jesus' last Passover there were twelve Jewish men who also represented the twelve tribes of Israel. There were NO GENTILES at this meal because it is strictly a Hebrew observance and instruction and command. No Gentiles were present at Jesus' last Passover and thus there were no Gentiles that Jesus said, "my body and blood is given FOR YOU" - meaning the twelve tribes of Israel, the exact people that have been in constant covenant with God.

If God's grace was meant for "all humanity" then why did Jesus as High Priest NOT pray for the world (as opposed to all Hebrews who are identified as "them" in John 17?)

If God's grace is for all humanity then why does God hate "the world" in 1 John 2:15-16?

15 Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him.
16 For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. 1 John 2:15–16.

God is not a hypocrite. He does not love "the world" (as wrongly interpreted in John 3:16), and command His people to 'not love the world' (unbelievers), and then turn and "love the world' Himself?

The whole of Scripture from Genesis to Revelation is a love letter from God to Israel, NOT Gentiles. If Gentiles a.k.a. "the world" were to be included in God's grace then they should have been included in God's covenant promises in the Abrahamic Covenant, the Mosaic Covenant, and the New Covenant, but they are not. Saul would not say...

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. Galatians 4:4–5.

...IF Gentiles were included in the redemption God has given to Abraham and his seed. Gentiles do not come from Abraham's seed or his loins. They come from Ham and Japheth.
Abraham married Sarai, his half-sister. His father and her father were brothers from the family of Eber, from which the word and name "Hebrew" derives. You cannot birth a non-Hebrew Gentile if both parents are Hebrew. It is biologically impossible.

If non-Hebrew Gentiles have ever been included in the grace of God, then God would have included them in His covenants and then you end up with the false doctrine of Universalism - both Jew and Gentiles are saved. There are only two groups of people in the "world" (planet), and they are Jew and non-Jew Gentiles.

Under the Law the animal was sacrificed to a yearly atonement of the sins of the children of Israel. Jesus didn't change the Law, He said He came to fulfill it. This means that as the lamb OF GOD He was sent to die a substitutionary death in place of the animal who was slain and whose blood was sprinkled on the Mercy Seat of the Hebrew Ark of the Covenant. So, to teach that Jesus died for "everybody" or "the world of Gentiles" is to teach Jesus did not fulfill the Law but changed it, which is impossible for any change would effectively destroy the Law and rendered unreliable for all things having to do with faith and reason. Not even God can change the Law He gave Moses for the children of Israel. So, why do you teach Jesus changed the Law and His death also covers non-Hebrew Gentiles? Were Gentiles ever under the Law to begin with?
When you read words like the ones you mention above about "the world" you run into a contradiction.
The "all men God wanted to save" are the Hebrew people. And if you're going to be strict and say it refers to Gentiles, you would be wrong for it says only "all MEN" - so what about the women?
The context is Israel in the Holy Bible. God so loved the world of Jews, not Gentiles for in 1 John 2:15-16 God says we are not to love the "world" of unsaved people. Not even God casts His pearls to swine, nor gives that which is Holy (His love) to dogs (unsaved, uncircumcised, non-covenant Gentiles.)

"For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; Who will have all men to be saved,
and to come unto the knowledge of the truth."

The "all men" are Jews. Because if "all men" refers to Gentiles then why did Jesus refuse and not pray for "the world" (John 17:9), right before He was to offer Himself for sins? The time to pray for the "world" would have been right then and there, but He doesn't, which means the "world" do not have a prayer in the world to their benefit.
Saul writes to Timothy, and the "all men" God wants to save are Jews, not Gentiles. Be careful when you read such words. Otherwise, we have to interpret this as meaning everyone in Israel including the Sanhedrin:

5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins. Mark 1:5.

Clearly the "all" in this verse refers to everyone in Judaea and Jerusalem including the Pharisees and Sadducees, right?

You're in Paul's epistles, his audience is to the Gentiles. Israel fell in Acts 7, the middle wall of partition that separated Jew from Gentile had then been removed, hence God saving Saul of Tarsus in Acts 9 by His grace, & sending him to the Gentiles.

The middle wall separated Jew from mixed-race Jew. These are identified as Samaritans as well as mixed-race Jews who are the offspring of the two southern tribes (Judah and Benjamin.) By the way, where are they identified in the New Testament? The gospels identify Samaritans who are the offspring of Jews of the Diaspora of the ten northern kingdom tribes with Manasseh and Ephraim, but where are the two southern kingdom tribes of Judah and Benjamin? Did they all die out? Where are they identified in the NT?

"Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both [Jew & Gentile alike] unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:" Ephesians 2:11-16

It is because you want to insert "Gentile" as the "both" in this passage that you claim Gentile salvation. But why aren't they included in the Mosaic Covenant? Did the high priest after offering sacrifices from Israel leave and go to Gentiles and offer lambs for their sins? Where in the Bible is that?

Gentiles in time past were dogs, w/out hope, & God in the world. Paul is addressing the Gentiles "aka" heathen.

This is what us Dispensationalists believe, absolutely.

I don't think you understand the mystery Paul was given at all.

The Law/Grace debate became a thing b/c of legalism. Those saved over the past 2,000+ years are saved the same exact way, both Jew & Gentile alike. God concluded ALL under sin, not just the Jews. Again, Paul is the apostle of the Gentiles. Israel doesn't presently hold a superior position over the rest of the nations.

"But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe" Galatians 3:22

If we're saved during God's dispensation of grace, our ethnicity/gender/status doesn't mean a thing.

There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female:
for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
Galatians 3:28

Greek is not the same as Gentile. The word "Greek" is "hellens" and it refers to Hellenized Jews, not Gentiles. But let read it again and see if Saul is referring to Jews or Gentiles in what he wrote:

23 But before faith came, we [JEWS] were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our [JEWS] schoolmaster to bring us [JEWS] unto Christ, that we [JEWS] might be justified by faith.
25 But after that faith is come, we [JEWS] are no longer under a schoolmaster.
26 For ye [JEWS] are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
27 For as many of you [JEWS] as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye [JEWS] are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye [JEWS] be Christ’s, then are ye [Still JEWS and] Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.
Galatians 3:23–29.

Were Gentiles ever an heir to Abraham's promises? No, they went to his Hebrew son, Isaac, and then to his Hebrew grandson, Jacob. Gentiles were never under the Law so how can they be heirs of Abraham's or Moses promises?
The reason why Saul wrote those passages (23-29) is because there were Jews who were followers of Christ and as Abraham's seed were concerned with their standing in the Abrahamic promises, Following Jesus was a new thing to the Jews. There was only Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and Moses. Gentiles were never under a "schoolmaster" (the Law), right?The letters of the New Testament were written by Jews to Jews and Jewish Christians and in them is discussion, explanation, of the New Covenant era Israel found herself in with the coming of the Holy Spirit of Promise PROMISED TO ISRAEL by one of their prophets, Joel.
Where in the Old Testament did God ever promise His Spirit to non-Hebrew Gentiles? Show me the Scripture.

Christ becomes our new identity. If you're saved today, you, as a Jew in the flesh, won't be part of the new covenant God will make w/ the house of Israel, & the house of Judah. When you study Paul's epistles, you'll see he explains the BoC is eternal in the heavens, not in the kingdom on the earth.

Also, there's a huge difference between a New Testament, & a New Covenant. One is a Will, the other a Contract. No where does Paul mention the BoC being in a Contract w/ God, past or future tense. Gentiles become fellow heirs of His Will, our inheritance is in the heavens. The blessings, & promises made to Israel, & Israel alone, will solely be theirs in the future.

What does "Christ" mean? Define the word, please.