The Trinity: Jewish or Gentile?

your answer please. book chapter, and verse.
Matthew 3:16-17
What is going on here?

Is God in heaven speaking?
Is Jesus on earth God incarnate or not?
Is the Spirit of God descending on Jesus from heaven or not?

Are there THREE GODS, or is Deuteronomy 6:4 and Mark 12:29 true … “the Lord is our God, the Lord is one”.
 
Matthew 3:16-17
What is going on here?
the Ordinal First, God, Jesus the "LORD", anointing" himself" with power because the Ordinal Last was
G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') v.
1. to make empty.
2. (figuratively) to abase, neutralize, falsify.
[from G2756]
KJV: make (of none effect, of no reputation, void), be in vain
Root(s): G2756

(smile), now that same NATURE that you say cannot be divided is in that body of flesh at it, the flesh birth, and not here anointed. well what's going on is that your assessment of God is INCORRECT.
Is God in heaven speaking?
who said God was in Heaven Speaking? or did you assume that by what was said? ...... (smile).
Are there THREE GODS, or is Deuteronomy 6:4 and Mark 12:29 true … “the Lord is our God, the Lord is one”.
ONE "LORD", notice the Title, not God, but his TITLE is ONE ..... "LORD"... (smile)... Oh dear.

101G.
 
the Ordinal First, God, Jesus the "LORD", anointing" himself" with power because the Ordinal Last was
G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') v.
1. to make empty.
2. (figuratively) to abase, neutralize, falsify.
[from G2756]
KJV: make (of none effect, of no reputation, void), be in vain
Root(s): G2756

(smile), now that same NATURE that you say cannot be divided is in that body of flesh at it, the flesh birth, and not here anointed. well what's going on is that your assessment of God is INCORRECT.

who said God was in Heaven Speaking? or did you assume that by what was said? ...... (smile).

ONE "LORD", notice the Title, not God, but his TITLE is ONE ..... "LORD"... (smile)... Oh dear.

101G.
Respectfully, I do not feel enlightened. If you had a point that you were making, I regretfully confess that it went right past me. All I got from your post was confusion.

Sorry.
 
Respectfully, I do not feel enlightened. If you had a point that you were making, I regretfully confess that it went right past me. All I got from your post was confusion.

Sorry.
GINOLJC, to all.
Respectfully, that's ok, sometimes it takes others LONGER to grasp, or understand.

101G
 
You are typing nonsense.

1 Corinthians 14:10 [NASB] There are, perhaps, a great many kinds of languages in the world, and none is incapable of meaning ... [until now.]
GINOLJC? just a Greeting....... just as PICJAG, the opposite.

PICJAG, 101G
 
Was-never had a beginning or end-haya
With-Pros-face to face.
correct

PROS

with the acc[usative] of a person, after verbs of remaining, dwelling, tarrying, etc. (which require one to be conceived of as always turned towards one)...after EIMI...Jn i.1 (Thayer).

be (in company) with someone...J 1:1f (BAGD).

a marker of association, often with the implication of interrelationships...'the Word was with God' Jn 1:1 (Louw & Nida)
 
correct

PROS

with the acc[usative] of a person, after verbs of remaining, dwelling, tarrying, etc. (which require one to be conceived of as always turned towards one)...after EIMI...Jn i.1 (Thayer).

be (in company) with someone...J 1:1f (BAGD).

a marker of association, often with the implication of interrelationships...'the Word was with God' Jn 1:1 (Louw & Nida)
V-IIA-3S (BSB Morphology)
Verb - Imperfect Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Lemma: εἰμί
Word: was
Greek: ἦν
Transliteration: ēn
G1510 (Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments)
G1510 εἰμί eimi (ei-miy') v.
1. I am (i.e. I exist).
2. (emphatically declaring oneself, following G1473) It is I Myself (see Matthew 14:27, Matthew 14:28 and Mark 6:50).
3. (of God himself, following G1473) I AM (this is the comparable Greek form of God's Hebrew name, YAHWEH; compare H3068).
{used only when emphatic}
[first person singular present indicative, a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb]
KJV: am, have been, X it is I, was
See also: G1488, G1498, G1511, G1526, G2258, G2071, G2070, G2075, G2076, G2077, G2252, G2277, G2468, G5600, G5607
With God.—These words express the co-existence, but at the same time the distinction of person.

They imply relation with, intercourse with. (Comp. the “in the bosom of the Father” of Joh. 1:18, and “Let us make man” of Gen. 1:26.) “Throned face to face with God,” “the gaze ever directed towards God,” have been given as paraphrases, and the full sense cannot be expressed in fewer words.

The “with” represents “motion towards.” The Being whose existence is asserted in the “was” is regarded as distinct, but not alone, as ever going forth in communion with God. (Comp. the use of the same word “with” in Mat. 13:56; Mat. 26:11; Mar. 6:3; Mar. 9:19; 1Co. 16:6-7; Gal. 1:18; Gal. 4:18.)
Was God.—This is the completion of the graduated statement. It maintains the distinction of person, but at the same time asserts the oneness of essence.

"was" (thrice)
This is an imperfect tense (cf. John 1:1,2,4,10) which focuses on continual existence in past time. This tense is used to show the Logos' pre-existence (cf. John 8:57-58; 17:5,24; 2 Cor. 8:9; Col. 1:17; Heb. 10:5-7). It is contrasted with the aorist tenses
of John 1:3, 6, and 14.

"the Word"
The Greek term logos referred to a message, not just a single word. In this context it is a title which the Greeks used to describe "world reason" and the Hebrews as analogus with "Wisdom." John chose this term to assert that God's Word is both a person and a message.

"with God" "With" could be paraphrased "face to face."

It depicts intimate fellowship. It also points toward the concept of one divine essence and three personal eternal manifestations. The NT asserts the paradox that Jesus is separate from the Father, but also that He is one with the Father.

"the Word was God"
This verb is imperfect tense as in John 1:1a. There is no article (which identifies the subject, see F. F. Bruce, Answers to Questions, p. 66) with Theos, but Theos is placed first in the Greek phrase for emphasis. This verse and John 1:18 are strong statements of the full deity of the pre-existent Logos (cf. John 5:18; 8:58; 10:30; 14:9; 17:11; 20:28; Rom. 9:5; Heb. 1:8; 2 Pet. 1:1). Jesus is fully divine as well as fully human (cf. 1 John 4:1-3). He is not the same as God the Father, but He is the very same divine essence as the Father.
The NT asserts the full deity of Jesus of Nazareth, but protects the distinct personhood of the Father.

The one divine essence is emphasized in John 1:1; 5:18; 10:30,34-38; 14:9-10; and 20:28, while their distinctives are emphasized in John 1:2,14,18; 5:19-23; 8:28; 10:25,29; 14:11,12,13,16.
1:2 This is parallel to John 1:1 and emphasizes again the shocking truth in light of monotheism that Jesus, who was born around 6-5 B.C., has always been with the Father and, therefore, is Deity.

But you know all this @civic-notice all the IMPERFECT TENSES-most go by what words means, forgetting the morphologies and syntax! Same with Hebrew-that's why Tovia Singer can "sing" against Christians.
 
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