The Transmission of the New Testament - An Analogy

EclipseEventSigns

Well-known member
I've wanted to put together this analogy for a while now. It demonstrates my understanding of the transmission history of the New Testament text. I wanted to illustrate this using two completely different languages than what we usually associate with the New Testament texts. I think it demonstrates the concepts and issues more clearly.

Imagine that there is a family of manuscripts (labled [F]) which contain the following:
[F]
It's raining, it's dropping. Since the Crones are hopping around in the Hut, therefore, throw away every Pot.

There exist a lot of manuscripts with this text. Scholars recognize that this is idiomatic English and it has been long ago accepted that this almost certainly reflects what the original author wrote and meant. The most powerful religious leaders support this viewpoint and strongly defend this position against any dissenters. However, these manuscripts are known to be relatively young. While linguistic scholars confirm this is proper English, there are a few anomalies that suggest the author was not a native English speaker. They point out the capitalized nouns, for example.

Well, there have been some other manuscripts discovered after [F]. They contain very similar content but they've been confirmed as an older version of the text.
[D]
It rains, it drops. The Crones are hopping in the Hut around hop. Throw every Pot away.

It's still English. It mostly makes sense but it contains some odd grammar. Scholars are unsure why it is different. They theorize that since this family of manuscripts are fewer in number and from an area where English is a secondary language that it's been corrupted with the bad theology known to have existed at that time.

During this same time, another family of older manuscripts was discovered [E]. These were found in another part of the country.
[E]
It rains, it drops. The old Hags are hopping. Hop in the Cabin around. Throw all Pots down.

Again it's English. It mostly makes sense but displays some odd and stilted grammar. The meaning of the text is different than [F] and [D] - the action of throwing the pots does not depend on the actions of crones/hags. Also the text is arranged in 4 distinct statements and could very well be in the form of rhyming poetry. [F] does not have this feature.

Well, the staunch supporters of [F] will have none of this. They claim that [E] for sure is a corruption of the original. Look at the evidence. It uses the word "Hags" for "Crones". And it adds to the text – there is an extra word "old" that [F] does not have. It uses "Cabin" for "Hut". And instead of "throwing away", an entirely different meaning of "throwing down" occurs. This can't possibly be from the original author.

Confusion reigns. Scholars are at a loss to figure out which manuscript is the original one. And each manuscript has its devoted followers. They continually bicker and fight with each other using evidence to support their particular views. They even go so far as calling each other "unbeliever" and will have nothing to do with anyone who disagrees with their opinion. There are even entire denominations built up around a particular family of manuscript.

Unbeknowst to the vast majority of those that are dealing with these three manuscript families, in a different country, there is a family of manuscripts in a different language. They are of similar age to the earlier [D] and [E]. This text is in German [C]
[C]
Es regnet, es tropft
die Hexen hüpfen
in der Hütte herumhüpfen
wirf jeden Topf weg.


There are some scholars who know both English and German and have compared the various manuscripts. What they discover is that [D] is a word for word translation of this German [C]. That explains the stilted grammar in English. It also explains the carry over of capitalizing all the nouns. The English translation [D] wanted to preserve the exact wording of this text even if it meant that it resulted in awkward English. No one would ever talk this way but the Scripture specifically says to not add or take away from the words of Scripture.

These scholars recognize that the text was originally written in German, not English. While the overall concepts are clearly translated into English, there are some unfortunate differences that have crept in which cause native English readers of those manuscripts to misunderstand the original intent.

But the majority of English scholars and complacent followers of the religious leaders are mostly ignorant that they don't know what they don't know. And even when some are presented with these facts, they choose to ignore the evidence. There are some that do spend time to investigate but are motivated to discredit this evidence in order to protect the status quo and their jobs and positions and ego. Afterall, the system has been in place for centuries and nothing will be allowed to upset it.

There is yet one more family of manuscript that exists in that different country. This family can not be dated but it is of ancient origin. There is a long standing tradition that it is the original version of the text.
[ B]
Es regnet, es tropft
die alte Hexen hüpfen
hüpfen in der Hütte herum
wirf alle Töpfe um.


It is very close to [C]. Hardly different at all. But certain words are different which do not change the meaning. Certain verbs are arranged slightly differently. Only slight differences in shades of meaning. Those same scholars familiar with both German and English recognize that [E] is a word for word translation of this manuscript. It preserves the rhyming and poetic form of this text. This could very well be the closest to the original text and reflects the actual intent behind the text.

However, again, no English scholar attached to any major institution will support this evidence or even give it the time of day. They will take every opportunity to discredit it and claim that German [C] and [ B] are translations of the original English. But they can't determine which English manuscript that is. And the fighting continues.

But unknown to all, but suspected by some, there used to be a text that has been lost to the ravages of time. It is the actual original text.
[A]
As reagalat, as tropfalat
dia alde Weibla hopfalat
hopfat en dr Stuba rom
schmeissat älle Häfa om.

(original German Swabian text)

It's rainin', it's droppin'
the hags are a-hoppin'
hop around in the hut
throw down every pot.

(Idiomatic English of the original)

The original text was in a dialect of German. It was in Swabian. Looked down upon by the High German speaking as a folksy language. If you compare this text with all the others, you can see the path of transmission and where the changes took place and why they are the way they are.

In the grand scheme of things and for an unknown reason, [A] never survived. But [ B] as an exact word for word version in High German spread and was accepted as the authentic version which expressed the true intent of the text. More people spoke High German than Swabian and [ B] would be understood and spread farther than [A] ever could.

At a time very close when [ B] was made, [E] was translated into English and was a true reflection of the [A] text itself. The original text then existed in both High German and English. However, early on, English speakers lost contact and actually shunned anyone of German background. It didn't take too long for [E] to be (falsely) regarded as the original text. But it wasn't very good English and was course sounding and awkward. Why would God allow such mistakes in His communication with Mankind? So as time went by it was "corrected" into better, more grammatically correct English. But it still contained some flavor and characteristics of the older versions. There was respect for the text even though there was no remaining understanding about the history of the transmission of the text.

But then the religious leaders got involved and through power and agenda they manufactured history to support their views. They actively forbade research of dissenting views and over the centuries manufactured opinions became accepted facts. And human nature needs a sense of belonging and stability and naturally supports the "side" they feel comfortable with. Even if ultimately what they believe is not correct.

This analogy illustrates what my research has uncovered. I'm by no means the only one who has come to this conclusion. Usually this view point has been expressed by very few and obscure scholars who published their research in the 1800's and early 1900's. But their methods of explanation is not friendly to our modern short attention span.

In addition, what I've found is that many of those who have come to somewhat similar conclusions in our modern times are attached to questionable and faulty theology and want to use these topics to further their own agendas. But that's a whole other discussion.

It takes much effort to navigate the confusion to determine the actual facts of this matter.
 
If anyone wants a ready volume to compare major NT variations in the textual transmission, the single best volume I've found is Philip Comfort's New Testament Text and Translation Commentary.

Sadly there is nothing I know of like this for the OT yet, but an edition called Biblia Hebraica Quinta is currently being worked on.

Textual criticism is a lot of like putting puzzles pieces together, and there are a lot of differing opinions even by learned people, so best to get as much information as you can on it.
 
That's right. Read, read, read. And think. Don't just accept what you are spoonfed. Check all sources. Investigate the manuscripts (lots of good quality images available these days.) Learn the rudimentary rules of the various languages - Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek. You can then evaluate where a supposed "expert" is making stuff up to pad his/her pet theory.

The truth is never afraid of being questioned by honest seekers.
 
Case in point. I was once a member of the forum run by James White. He's considered a foremost expert on Greek manuscripts of the New Testament. I asked a simple question. What are the main evidences that Greek was the original language of the New Testament text and not Aramaic? In less than a minute of when I asked that question I was banned from the forum.

Not getting any honest answers there.
 
when I asked that question I was banned from the forum.

I may strongly disagree with some of your conclusions, and express my opinion forcefully, but let me say that behavior is completely and entirely wrong and unlike Christ, and no one should be treated that way.

I am very much interested in any good arguments for an Aramaic original, or any other interesting theory, I have just not found anything that convinced me yet.
 
I may strongly disagree with some of your conclusions, and express my opinion forcefully, but let me say that behavior is completely and entirely wrong and unlike Christ, and no one should be treated that way.

I am very much interested in any good arguments for an Aramaic original, or any other interesting theory, I have just not found anything that convinced me yet.
Ditto
 
I may strongly disagree with some of your conclusions, and express my opinion forcefully, but let me say that behavior is completely and entirely wrong and unlike Christ, and no one should be treated that way.

I am very much interested in any good arguments for an Aramaic original, or any other interesting theory, I have just not found anything that convinced me yet.
It's not really about good arguments. It's about the accumulation of evidence. You are never going to find a "Thus saith the Lord - the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic". But neither is there anything that says that Greek was the original language either.
The various evidences have to be pieced together.
-from eye witnesses - Josephus, early church writers; the 78 AD codex
-from Jewish documents - Talmud, Targums
-from archaeological discoveries
-from internal evidence within the Aramaic Peshitta itself - split words, grammar particular to Aramaic alone, rhyming sections, and more
-from internal evidence within the Greek texts - strange sayings that make no sense unless backtranslated into Aramaic where it makes complete sense

The balance eventually tips in favor of one language over the other depending how hard you investigate.
 
Here's a very clear "error" in the Greek texts. I included this in another post but I will extract this part here too.

I'll show you something which you probably haven't noticed before or don't have a good answer for.
[Mat 24:28 BBE] 28 Wherever the dead body is, there will the eagles come together.

A lot of newer translations change out the word "eagles" for "vultures". This is because it's a well known fact that eagles are not carrion birds. Yet the term in the Greek is "aetos" and very specifically means an eagle. So what's going on with this text making such an obvious mistake about bird behaviour? Either Jesus does not know bird biology. Or the writer of the Greek does not know bird biology. Either way, the text makes a statement contrary to biological science.

Well, if you check what the Peshitta (the New Testament in Aramaic) says, it uses the word "neshra". It can refer to EITHER a vulture or an eagle. (http://dukhrana.com/lexicon/word.php?adr=2:13642&font=Estrangelo+Edessa&source=ubs&size=125%)

And for confirmation, Aramaic and Hebrew are very closely related. Check out Leviticus 11:13 where the related word there is "nesher" and can refer to either an eagle, vulture, or griffon vulture. What's a "griffon vulture". It's a vulture eagle with a very large wing span. It's a massive bird in that geographic region and majestically soars on thermal currents. (https://animalia.bio/griffon-vulture)

So the Aramaic describes a carrion bird with wings as large and majestic as an eagle. The Greek word "aeton" does not have this connotation at all. This is evidence that the Aramaic is much closer to (if not the) original language of this text.
 
Do you even research your claims?

Why didn't you quote one single reputable Greek lexical source?

You want us to search it out super hard and vigoriously, but won't bother to quote experts in the field?

You think being a good Berean is "just let me make a bunch of claims and trust me bro!"?

I know you think I'm trying to mock you sometimes, but that's not it.

I'm trying to get you to think and self-reflect.


Here's one entry for the Greek word (BDAG), and I have many others:

145 ἀετός
• ἀετός, οῦ, ὁ (since Hom., who, as do many after him, writes αἰετός early Attic [cp. Jos., Bell. 5, 48]; ins, pap, LXX; Test12Patr, ParJer; ApcMos 33; Jos., Bell. 1, 650f, Ant. 17, 151; Tat. 10, 1f; DELG s.v. αἰετός) eagle symbol of swiftness Rv 12:14 (s. Ezk 17:3, 7); cp. 4:7; 8:13 (s. Boll 37f; 113f—ἀ. πετόμενος as Job 9:26). Eating carrion, in the proverb (cp. Job 39:30) ἐκεῖ (ἐπι)συναχθήσονται οἱ ἀ. Mt 24:28; Lk 17:37 (where vulture is meant; Aristot., HA 9, 32, 592b, 1ff, and Pliny, Hist. Nat. 10, 3 also class the vulture among the eagles; TManson, Sayings of Jesus ’54, 147, emphasizes the swiftness of the coming of the Day of the Son of Man). Moses forbade eating of its flesh B 10:1, 4 (Dt 14:12; Lev 11:13).—M-M.

We have both clear reference in the LXX to the word being used for vultures, and historical evidence that ancient Greeks often grouped them.
 
Do you even research your claims?

Why didn't you quote one single reputable Greek lexical source?

You want us to search it out super hard and vigoriously, but won't bother to quote experts in the field?

You think being a good Berean is "just let me make a bunch of claims and trust me bro!"?

I know you think I'm trying to mock you sometimes, but that's not it.

I'm trying to get you to think and self-reflect.


Here's one entry for the Greek word (BDAG), and I have many others:



We have both clear reference in the LXX to the word being used for vultures, and historical evidence that ancient Greeks often grouped them.
Maybe you should read your references BEFORE trying to pounce on someone. It doesn't say what you think it does. Here is Thayer's Greek Lexicon which, yes, I did read very closely while researching this.

ἀετός, -οῦ, ὁ (like Latin avis, from ἄημι on account of its wind-like flight [cf. Curtius, § 596]) [from Homer down], in the Sept. for נֶשֶׁר, an eagle: Revelation 4:7; Revelation 8:13 (Rec. ἀγγέλου); Revelation 12:14.
In Matthew 24:28; Luke 17:37 (as in Job 39:30; Proverbs 30:17) it is better, since eagles are said seldom or never to go in quest of carrion, to understand with many interpreters either the vultur percnopterus, which resembles an eagle (Pliny, h. n. 10, 3 "quarti generis — viz. aquilarum — est percnopterus"), or the vultur barbatus. Cf. Winers RWB under the word Adler; [Tristram, National History of the Bible, p. 172ff]. The meaning of the proverb [cf. examples in Wetstein on Matthew, the passage cited] quoted in both passages is, 'where there are sinners (cf. πτῶμα), there judgments from heaven will not be wanting'.

Notice that it says interpreters assume this is referring to a large vulture species because it "resembles" an eagle even though the text clearly uses the word specific for "eagle". Your Greek lexicon also states "vulture is meant" where this word is used in this passage. Interpreters of the Greek have to "assume" and "resemble" another species of bird.

But the whole point is the Aramaic word does mean vulture and does mean eagle as part of its definition. There is no "assuming" or "guessing" or jumping through hoops.
 
If anyone wants a ready volume to compare major NT variations in the textual transmission, the single best volume I've found is Philip Comfort's New Testament Text and Translation Commentary.

Sadly there is nothing I know of like this for the OT yet, but an edition called Biblia Hebraica Quinta is currently being worked on.

Textual criticism is a lot of like putting puzzles pieces together, and there are a lot of differing opinions even by learned people, so best to get as much information as you can on it.

The NET Bible generally does well identifying variant readings in the OT. John Gill's commentary often does well in recognizing Greek OT choices along Aramaic sources. The NETS translation does well with the Greek OT. The ABP does well with cross referencing the Greek OT, Hebrew OT and the NT based upon Strong's numbering system. Though there are complications between Koine and some of the older Greek sources.

 
Here's a very clear "error" in the Greek texts. I included this in another post but I will extract this part here too.

I'll show you something which you probably haven't noticed before or don't have a good answer for.
[Mat 24:28 BBE] 28 Wherever the dead body is, there will the eagles come together.

A lot of newer translations change out the word "eagles" for "vultures". This is because it's a well known fact that eagles are not carrion birds. Yet the term in the Greek is "aetos" and very specifically means an eagle. So what's going on with this text making such an obvious mistake about bird behaviour? Either Jesus does not know bird biology. Or the writer of the Greek does not know bird biology. Either way, the text makes a statement contrary to biological science.

Well, if you check what the Peshitta (the New Testament in Aramaic) says, it uses the word "neshra". It can refer to EITHER a vulture or an eagle. (http://dukhrana.com/lexicon/word.php?adr=2:13642&font=Estrangelo+Edessa&source=ubs&size=125%)

And for confirmation, Aramaic and Hebrew are very closely related. Check out Leviticus 11:13 where the related word there is "nesher" and can refer to either an eagle, vulture, or griffon vulture. What's a "griffon vulture". It's a vulture eagle with a very large wing span. It's a massive bird in that geographic region and majestically soars on thermal currents. (https://animalia.bio/griffon-vulture)

So the Aramaic describes a carrion bird with wings as large and majestic as an eagle. The Greek word "aeton" does not have this connotation at all. This is evidence that the Aramaic is much closer to (if not the) original language of this text.

Geesh....

One word for you......Accipitridae.
 
Cool. So what?
"aetos" means eagle. Only eagle. Not vulture. And that's the entire point. I've got a word for you - "closed mind".

No. Old World Vultures are from the same distinct family as eagles. There is no reason to try and compare what you believe about modern eagles and vultures with very ancient words that don't mean what you think they mean.
 
No. Old World Vultures are from the same distinct family as eagles. There is no reason to try and compare what you believe about modern eagles and vultures with very ancient words that don't mean what you think they mean.
LOL. I posted the Greek lexicon. Take it up with them if you know better.
 
LOL. I posted the Greek lexicon. Take it up with them if you know better.

I have a right to deal with the evidence you're using as "fact". Lexicons are filled with opinion. Again. Eagles and Vultures are in the same family. Modern Vultures as you're referencing are different. It is a false comparison.
 
I have a right to deal with the evidence you're using as "fact". Lexicons are filled with opinion. Again. Eagles and Vultures are in the same family. Modern Vultures as you're referencing are different. It is a false comparison.
The POINT is looking at the word as it occurs in the NT text. That is the issue. Determine what that meant at the time. Your assumption of putting modern biological classifications on ancient literature is...hilariously ignorant.
 
The POINT is looking at the word as it occurs in the NT text. That is the issue. Determine what that meant at the time. Your assumption of putting modern biological classifications on ancient literature is...hilariously ignorant.

I don't care what the English word being used. That word represents a fact that we know. Modern Vultures are different. We know that the vultures of the "Old World" were very similar to eagles. There is no "Wonder" why a particular culture/person would treat them the same. There is no issue. It is a fabrication that is nothing more than an attempt to discredit a source you do not prefer yourself.
 
I don't care what the English word being used. That word represents a fact that we know. Modern Vultures are different. We know that the vultures of the "Old World" were very similar to eagles. There is no "Wonder" why a particular culture/person would treat them the same. There is no issue. It is a fabrication that is nothing more than an attempt to discredit a source you do not prefer yourself.
"aetos". Greek word. Not English. Get it?
 
"aetos". Greek word. Not English. Get it?

Okay. I will try again. You're too fixated upon your "poor method" to recognize what I'm saying.....

It doesn't matter what the Greek word is. You drew a contrast against the actions of modern Vultures and Eagles. When these cultures existed, they were overlaps in reference between similar birds.

The simplest explanation is often the best explanation.
 
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