I Never Knew You

All of that was once true about demons, but not anymore. This has become a moot point since God destroyed the entire realm of Satanic creatures once and for all back in AD 70.

Hello @3 Resurrections,

Would you please provide the scriptures to confirm this.

In Christ Jesus
Chris

Hebrews 12:26 - "But NOW hath he promised, saying, Yet once more I shake not the earth only, but also heaven. And this word, 'Yet once more', signifieth the REMOVING of those things that are shaken..." The evil angelic powers of the heavens were about to be shaken and then removed in the days Hebrews was being written (around 64 AD.)

Romans 16:20 - "And the God of peace shall crush Satan under your feet SHORTLY." (written around AD 60.) This promised a soon fulfillment of the ancient prediction given to Eve that the head of Satan would eventually be crushed under the heel of the Seed of the Woman.

Zechariah 12-14 - These chapters describe the prophecy given to Israel which would be fulfilled in the AD 66-70 "siege both against Judah and Jerusalem". Zechariah 13:2 predicted that God would "cause the prophets and the unclean spirit to pass out of the land". The unclean spirit" here in Zech. 13:2 were the same as the prediction given in Revelation 18:2 that Jerusalem as "Babylon the Great" would become a habitation of devils, and a prison for "EVERY unclean spirit".

Every member of the Satanic realm was cast into the city of Jerusalem during the AD 66-70 years to torment the besieged inhabitants of the city in the nation's "last state". It was in that location that God got rid of the entire Satanic realm. He used it to judge His own people, as Christ had already predicted back in Matthew 12:43-45. The devils cast out of Israel's citizens would return in seven-fold numbers more wicked than those Christ had cast out before during His earthly ministry in that wicked generation's "first state". This would render that wicked generation's "last state" worse than before.

Inside the city of Jerusalem during the AD 66-70 years, the demon-possessed individuals inside it tormented each other by slaying each other under the competing Zealot factions. Satan's kingdom became "divided against itself". And as Christ said in Mark 3:24-26, if Satan's kingdom would "rise up against himself, and be divided, he cannot stand, but hath an END".

This "END" of Satan's kingdom was pictured for us in Revelation 16:17 when the seventh angel poured out his vial "into the AIR". This was a judgment over the "Prince of the power of the AIR", when Satan's kingdom was eradicated entirely. And we know this is ancient history, because John wrote in both Rev. 1:3 and 22:10 that the visions which he was writing (around AD 60) were "AT HAND" in his own generation.

Do you need more? Because there are more Scriptures related to the AD 70 death of Satan and his devils that I can submit, from both the OT and the NT. The spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly realm no longer exist. The blame for any evil performed in this world since AD 70 lies squarely at the feet of fallen mankind ALONE and the wicked impulses of the human heart.
@3 Resurrections said:-
since God destroyed the entire realm of Satanic creatures once and for all back in AD 70.

Hello there,

I asked you to provide scriptural evidence that what you said, in the quote, above is true. You have provided verses which you believe confirms this:-

Hebrews 12:26 Romans 16:20 Zechariah ch. 12-14
Zechariah 13:2 Revelation 18:2 Matthew 12:43-45
Mark 3:24-26 Revelation 16:17 Rev. 1:3 & 22:10

You have interpreted these verses according to your viewpoint, which is one which I am not familiar with, and cannot agree with. I need to look into each of these Scriptures within their context, which I will do: but as to debating it, I would not know where to begin.

In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
You have interpreted these verses according to your viewpoint, which is one which I am not familiar with, and cannot agree with. I need to look into each of these Scriptures within their context, which I will do: but as to debating it, I would not know where to begin.
I am not surprised that you find no agreement with what I posted. The vast majority cannot possibly conceive of a world in which Satan and his devils are not alive and operating anymore. But Scripture most definitely writes predictions concerning the time when God would slay Satan the Dragon (Isaiah 27:1), so that this anointed cherub would no more exist to plague mankind (Ezekiel 23:18-19). Evil which is initiated by fallen mankind is more than enough cause to explain all the current manifestations of wickedness taking place in this world. "For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders, Thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness: All these evil things come from within, and defile the man." (Mark 7:21-23).

If John warned his readers in Revelation 12:12 that an angry Satan at that time had only a "short time" left to deceive the nations as John was writing those words around AD 60, that "short time" cannot possibly have extended almost 2,000 years and counting into the future. That "short time" / "little season" of Satan's release cannot possibly last longer than a "long season" which Scripture defined as 40 years for the Israelites' wanderings in the wilderness (Joshua 24:7.)
 
are you saying Jesus was not tempted in the wilderness from satan, the devil ? Scripture and Jesus use them interchangeable being one in the same being- the devil/satan.

Matthew 4
Then Jesus was led by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil.
2After fasting forty days and forty nights, he was hungry.
3The tempter came to him and said, “If you are the Son of God, tell these stones to become bread.”

4Jesus answered, “It is written: ‘Man shall not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.’

5Then the devil took him to the holy city and had him stand on the highest point of the temple.
6“If you are the Son of God,” he said, “throw yourself down. For it is written:

“‘He will command his angels concerning you,
and they will lift you up in their hands,
so that you will not strike your foot against a stone.’
7;Jesus answered him, “It is also written: ‘Do not put the Lord your God to the test.’

8Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their splendor. 9“All this I will give you,” he said, “if you will bow down and worship me.”

10Jesus said to him, “Away from me, Satan! For it is written: ‘Worship the Lord your God, and serve him only.

11Then the devil left him, and angels came and attended him.

conclusion: Scripture declares the being who temps is known as satan/ the devil. Peter says he prowls around like a roaring lion to devour. 1 Peter 5:8. After-all He like Jesus was tempted by the same being. Peter failed, Jesus did not. The other Apostles also affirm he is real, exists and is still active. see below:

Luke 22:31
Simon, Simon, Satan has asked to sift all of you like wheat.

James 4:7
Submit yourselves, then, to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you.

Ephesians 6:11-12
Put on the full armor of God, so that you can make your stand against the devil’s schemes. / For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the powers of this world’s darkness, and against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly realms.

2 Corinthians 11:14
And no wonder, for Satan himself masquerades as an angel of light.

2 Corinthians 2:11
in order that Satan should not outwit us. For we are not unaware of his schemes.

1 John 3:8
The one who practices sin is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the very start. This is why the Son of God was revealed, to destroy the works of the devil.

hope this helps !!!
I agree the names "devil" and "Satan" are used interchangeably in the New Covenant writings, but this is clearly non-existent in the Hebrew Scripture (Old Testament.) Why is that?

1. The term "devil" comes from the Greek word (diabolos), which means "slanderer" or "accuser."
This Greek word is part of the New Testament, which was originally written in Greek.

The Old Testament was written almost entirely in Hebrew, and the word (devil) simply does not appear in the Hebrew text.

2. The Word "Satan" in the Old Testament

The word "Satan" comes from the Hebrew word (satan), which is a generic noun meaning "adversary," "opponent."

In the Old Testament (KJV):

It is often used in a general sense to refer to human adversaries (e.g., 1 Kings 11:14).

Human adversaries? Man is called "satan"?

When it refers to the specific supernatural figure, it is most often found with the definite article as "the Satan" (Hebrew: ha-śāṭān), meaning "the Adversary" or "the Accuser." This is the figure that appears in Job 1-2 and Zechariah 3:1-2.

3. Connection in the Septuagint and New Testament

Although the Hebrew text of the Old Testament does not use "devil," the connection between the two terms is established in later translations and the New Testament: The Greek translation of the Old Testament, the Septuagint (LXX), often translated the Hebrew ha-śāṭān in places like Job and Zechariah using the Greek word (diabolos), linking the concepts.

The New Testament (and the KJV translation of it) explicitly uses both "Devil" and "Satan" to refer to the same ultimate evil being, often using them interchangeably or side-by-side (e.g., Revelation 12:9 in the KJV: "And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world...").
The Old Testament itself, the word for "devil" is absent, while the word "satan" is often a generic term for "adversary." (Satan) had evolved into the concept known as the (Devil), and the terms became synonyms.
--edited w/ Gemini.

The prophecy of Lucifer/devil/Satan in Isaiah 14 places this event before the creation of man. I won't get into my understanding of what transpired in the narrative but the result of Lucifer's desires is his being "brought down to "hell" to the sides of the pit.

15 Yet thou shalt be brought down to hell, to the sides of the pit. Isaiah 14:15.

This is also stated by Peter. But Peter adds more to the narrative of this Lucifer by saying [he] "was delivered into chains of darkness and reserved unto judgment. In short, Lucifer/devil/Satan is 'locked up' and awaiting final judgment. There is no passage in Scripture that this Lucifer/Satan had been released to dwell among men. The angels that sinned are all locked up (restricted/subdued) in chains of darkness awaiting judgment. According to Peter - who agrees with Isaiah - Lucifer/Satan is 'locked up.'

4 For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment; 2 Peter 2:3–4.

I used to believe the textbook version of Lucifer/Satan roaming the earth "seeking whom he may devour" (Peter) but I always came back to Isaiah's, Peter's, and Jude's word that the angels that sinned were locked up awaiting judgment. There is nothing in Scripture that he was given pardon, escaped, or paroled and is today roaming the earth. Peter's words, along with Jude, must be considered as final. And this sets us up to deal with James who says:

14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. James 1:14.

This states that there is only ONE way men are tempted. This includes Jesus - who is a man.

1 Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil.
2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred.
3 And when the tempter came to him, he said, If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread.
4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.
Matthew 4:1–4.

The word "devil" in the passage above is an adjective. Thus, it is not speaking of "Lucifer/Satan." An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. So, what does Matthew say? He says Jesus "fasted forty days and forty nights and was afterward [an] hungered." Hunger is a function of the flesh. Jesus' human part is being tested. Jesus was hungry after this supernatural fast and so His flesh was the subject and itself was the "tempter." And what does Jesus consider in His thoughts? "IF" thou be the Son of God He could command these stones be made bread. There is nothing wrong with this. As James says, "But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed." Look at the word "lust." This is not a 'dirty' word. It merely means:

Greek Word: ἐπιθυμία
Transliteration: epithymia
Strong's [#1939] from [#1937] (epithumeo); a longing.

Jesus was hungry and He 'longed' to eat. This is as human one can get. The whole narrative brought out by Matthew describes three 'things' that refer to Jesus' humanity.

16 For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life 1 John 2:16.

Again, the word "lust" is: Strong's [#1939] ἐπιθυμία epithymia.

Lucifer/Satan is not part of Jesus' testing. The angels that sinned are 'locked up.' It is the Word who took upon Him the nature of man and the man Jesus' "hupostasis" is being tested. And to all this what does Jesus say?

30 Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me. John 14:30.

There was nothing in and of His flesh or human side that could claim any weakness common to man. For by having two natures, His "hupostasis" or "setting under" or human side was being upheld by the Divinity of the Christ, the Messiah.

The "prince", the "god of this world" is man. Lucifer/Satan is locked up awaiting judgment and there he remains with his compatriots, the one-third of the angelic realm, 'locked up' and awaiting judgment. As a man Jesus was tempted and as a man overcame and in the end was victorious.

15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Hebrews 4:15.

IF Jesus was tempted/tested by Lucifer then Jesus was not tested in all ways common to man and His testing is a farce. He could NOT be our High Priest and intermediary of us to God and of God to us. It is our flesh that we deal with in our walk with Jesus. But He says, "In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world." John 16:33. And this He did in the wilderness when His human side [flesh] was tested and He remained strong in the Lord.

Our weakness is that we are human. We were created "sinful" ("missing the mark") And that "mark" is the glory of God, or the glory that is God. Jesus Christ died as a man and was glorified as God. He took upon Himself flesh but was upheld by His Divinity. In similar fashion we, too, when we submit to God will be upheld by God, by divinity. Our Comforter is always with us for He will never leave nor forsake us. The Doctrine of Imputation is clear. Jesus took upon Himself our sinful nature and we are imputed His Righteous nature. It was a nature-swap. For there are those who say Jesus died for our sinful acts. This position destroys the Doctrine of Imputation. The passage reads:

21 For he hath made him [to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Corinthians 5:21.

It does not say He took upon Himself our sinful acts so that we would be imputed His righteous acts. Our sinlessness is the application of Jesus' sacrifice who as a man and as God died so that we may be given His divinity. It was a nature-swap, not an act-swap.

4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust [Strong's #1939]. 2 Peter 1:4.
 
I am not surprised that you find no agreement with what I posted. The vast majority cannot possibly conceive of a world in which Satan and his devils are not alive and operating anymore. But Scripture most definitely writes predictions concerning the time when God would slay Satan the Dragon (Isaiah 27:1), so that this anointed cherub would no more exist to plague mankind (Ezekiel 23:18-19). Evil which is initiated by fallen mankind is more than enough cause to explain all the current manifestations of wickedness taking place in this world. "For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders, Thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness: All these evil things come from within, and defile the man." (Mark 7:21-23).

If John warned his readers in Revelation 12:12 that an angry Satan at that time had only a "short time" left to deceive the nations as John was writing those words around AD 60, that "short time" cannot possibly have extended almost 2,000 years and counting into the future. That "short time" / "little season" of Satan's release cannot possibly last longer than a "long season" which Scripture defined as 40 years for the Israelites' wanderings in the wilderness (Joshua 24:7.)
Replies #36, #38.#40, #42:- references given by 3 Resurrections:-
Hebrews 12:26 Romans 16:20 Zechariah ch. 12-14
Zechariah 13:2 Revelation 18:2 Matthew 12:43-45
Mark 3:24-26 Revelation 16:17 Rev. 1:3 & 22:10
-----------------
Isaiah 27:1, Ezekiel 23:18-19, Mark 7:21-23, Revelation 12:12, Joshua 24:7.

Hello @3 Resurrections,

I can't speak for the rest of Christendom. For I am not affiliated with any denomination, or organisation. I speak from the limitations of my own study of the word of God, which I seek to rightly divide (2 Tim. 2:15). I acknowledge what the Scriptures, you have quoted, say concerning Satan, but have no reason to accept that what is described, took place at AD70. What did happen then in Israel was the destruction of the temple at Jerusalem by the Romans under Titus, which led to the scattering of the Jew among the nations at that time.

* Regarding the time aspect of Revelation 12:12, that you quote:- '... Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.' This is said within the framework of 'The Lord's Day', or (the day of the Lord) which John was seeing in vision form. (Rev 1:10) ' I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day'. This 'day' has yet to come.

* Also any delay during the period of the gospels and the book of Acts, during which the early letters of Paul were written, when the coming of the Lord was anticipated as being soon to come, is explained by the necessity for Israel to come to repentance, as shown in the words of Peter in Acts 3:19-21:-

'Repent ye therefore, and be converted,
that your sins may be blotted out,
when the times of refreshing shall come
from the presence of the Lord;
And He shall send Jesus Christ,
which before was preached unto you:
Whom the heaven must receive
until the times of restitution of all things,
which God hath spoken
by the mouth of all His holy prophets
since the world began.'


* God, with His foreknowledge, knew the outcome of Peter's preaching: but justice had to be seen to be done; opportunity for repentance had to be given to Israel; and so the time of probation that the Acts period afforded was given, to no avail. It now awaits a future fulfillment, when God's prophetic utterances. through the prophets, (including what has been prophesied regarding Satan himself) will come to fruition.

* A thousand years is as one day to God. Everything will come to pass in the time of His choosing, not by our reckoning.


Praise His Holy Name!

In Christ Jesus
Chris,
 
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Regarding the time aspect of Revelation 12:12, that you quote:- '... Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.' This is said within the framework of 'The Lord's Day', or (the day of the Lord) which John was seeing in vision form. (Rev 1:10) ' I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day'. This 'day' has yet to come.
You are not giving due consideration to the context of this Rev. 12:12 verse. This warning of "woe" pronounced by John was for his own generation, because John said that Satan had already come down to them to harass humanity back then. Satan's "short time" of deceiving the nations once more took place after the AD 33 war in heaven when he and his devils were cast out of heaven down to earth for that "short time" just after Christ's ascension on His resurrection day. This is ancient history - both the war in heaven which took place in AD 33, and Satan's "short time" on earth which immediately followed that war. That "Lord's day" John said He was in was simply the first day of the week when John's visions began.

* Also any delay during the period of the gospels and the book of Acts, during which the early letters of Paul were written, when the coming of the Lord was anticipated as being soon to come, is explained by the necessity for Israel to come to repentance, as shown in the words of Peter in Acts 3:19-21:-
Israel was given ample opportunity to repent and acknowledge Jesus as the Messiah, from AD 30 when Christ began His public ministry until the "days of vengeance" began in AD 66 and lasted until AD 70. During that time, only that elect "remnant" of ethnic Israelites Paul spoke of in Romans accepted Him as that Messiah . God slew them and called His servants by another name, as Isaiah had predicted long ago.

There are no national categories of separation under the New Covenant / New Jerusalem reality the saints live in today. No nation gets preferential treatment over another when it comes to salvation. The predicted second coming in the NT was not delayed past that first-century generation. After all, Christ had promised that some He was directly speaking to would live to see His coming return before they had died (Matt. 16:27-28).

* A thousand years is as one day to God. Everything will come to pass in the time of His choosing, not by our reckoning.
This verse by Peter is often twisted to mean that the passing of time is irrelevant to God. It isn't. God pronounced when He would fulfill these things, and all Revelation's revealed events related to the future were then "at hand" in John's own first-century days. God already defined when an "at hand" prophecy is to be fulfilled, as explained back in Ezekiel 12:21-28. The "at hand" prophecies are not "prolonged" into "times that are far off". They are both spoken and performed in the days of the people to whom they are first given. THIS is how God reckons time, when it comes to prophecies that are labeled as being "at hand".
 
You are not giving due consideration to the context of this Rev. 12:12 verse. This warning of "woe" pronounced by John was for his own generation, because John said that Satan had already come down to them to harass humanity back then. Satan's "short time" of deceiving the nations once more took place after the AD 33 war in heaven when he and his devils were cast out of heaven down to earth for that "short time" just after Christ's ascension on His resurrection day. This is ancient history - both the war in heaven which took place in AD 33, and Satan's "short time" on earth which immediately followed that war. That "Lord's day" John said He was in was simply the first day of the week when John's visions began.​
'Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them.
Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea!
for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath,
because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.'

(Rev 12:12)

Hello @2 Resurrections,

With respect, this is your interpretation of this portion of Scripture. I still maintain that this, as with all that the visions revealed to John, take place within 'the Lord's day': which is not, 'the first day of the week', as you claim, but refers to 'the day of the Lord' which is the subject of Old Testament Prophecy, and refers to a period of time in which the events recorded will come to pass.

'The first day of the week' that is now called by many, 'The Lord's day', is so called because of this verse, and not the other way around. In the New Testament this day is always called 'the first day of the week'.

Israel was given ample opportunity to repent and acknowledge Jesus as the Messiah, from AD 30 when Christ began His public ministry until the "days of vengeance" began in AD 66 and lasted until AD 70. During that time, only that elect "remnant" of ethnic Israelites Paul spoke of in Romans accepted Him as that Messiah . God slew them and called His servants by another name, as Isaiah had predicted long ago.
* Where in Isaiah is that to be found please?
There are no national categories of separation under the New Covenant / New Jerusalem reality the saints live in today. No nation gets preferential treatment over another when it comes to salvation. The predicted second coming in the NT was not delayed past that first-century generation. After all, Christ had promised that some He was directly speaking to would live to see His coming return before they had died (Matt. 16:27-28).​
This verse by Peter is often twisted to mean that the passing of time is irrelevant to God. It isn't. God pronounced when He would fulfill these things, and all Revelation's revealed events related to the future were then "at hand" in John's own first-century days. God already defined when an "at hand" prophecy is to be fulfilled, as explained back in Ezekiel 12:21-28. The "at hand" prophecies are not "prolonged" into "times that are far off". They are both spoken and performed in the days of the people to whom they are first given. THIS is how God reckons time, when it comes to prophecies that are labeled as being "at hand".​

'For the Son of man shall come in the glory of His Father with His angels;
and then He shall reward every man according to his works.
Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death,
till they see the Son of man coming in His kingdom.'

(Matthew 16:27-28)

* This is fulfilled in the following chapter, with the vision of the transfiguration, witnessed by Peter, James and John on the mount. For they saw a vision of the coming of the Son of Man. in His glory. It was repeated again in Acts 3:19-26, and was conditional on the repentance of the nation. As also were the words, 'the time is at hand' in Rev. 1:3 and 22:10.

* I acknowledge your use of Ezekiel 12:21-28, but need to consider it's context before commenting: The fulfillment took place five years later. See Joel 1:15 & 2:1, Zeph. 1:7, Matt. 3:2.

In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
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With respect, this is your interpretation of this portion of Scripture. I still maintain that this, as with all that the visions revealed to John, take place within 'the Lord's day': which is not the first day of the week as you claim, but refers to 'the day of the Lord' which is the subject of Old Testament Prophecy, and refers to a period of time in which the events recorded will come to pass.
The first day of the week that is now called by many, 'The Lord's day', is so called because of this verse, and not the other way around. In the New Testament this day is always called 'the first day of the week'.
Even if you interpret this Rev. 1:10 verse with "the Lord's day" in the manner in which you are doing (the subject of OT prophecy), this does not help you. This Rev. 1:10 verse is John's past review of what he had seen on that particular "Lord's day". "I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day..." That still means a past first-century fulfillment of that "Lord's day".

For the Son of man shall come in the glory of His Father with His angels;
and then He shall reward every man according to his works.
Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death,
till they see the Son of man coming in His kingdom.'

(Matthew 16:27-28)

* This is fulfilled in the following chapter, with the vision of the transfiguration, witnessed by Peter, James and John on the mount. For they saw a vision of the coming of the Son of Man. in His glory.
This is a fairly common interpretation, but as it happens, an impossible one. No rewards according to every man's work were given out at the Mount of Transfiguration. Neither did Christ "come" in a return on that mount of transfiguration, because He had never left at that point. Moreover, Christ's promise was that only "some", (but not all of the multitude He was speaking to), would still be alive to see this return. There were not mass deaths in Israel with just a small remnant of people left alive in the interim of five days between this Matt. 16:27-28 statement of Christ and the Mount of Transfiguration.

* I acknowledge your use of Ezekiel 12:21-28, but need to consider it's context before commenting: The fulfillment took place five years later. See Joel 1:15 & 2:1, Zeph. 1:7, Matt. 3:2.
Exactly. That's my point. An "at hand" prophecy God says takes place "In YOUR days" for those who are hearing it for the first time when He speaks that prophecy, and then performs it. In this case in Ezekiel 12:21-28, five years later would have been the fulfillment of that particular "at hand" prophecy for those people in their own days. For John's revealed visions, any of them related to the future would also take place in the days of his own first-century generation when those "at hand" prophecies between Rev. 1:3 and 22:10 were to be fulfilled.
 
Even if you interpret this Rev. 1:10 verse with "the Lord's day" in the manner in which you are doing (the subject of OT prophecy), this does not help you. This Rev. 1:10 verse is John's past review of what he had seen on that particular "Lord's day". "I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day..." That still means a past first-century fulfillment of that "Lord's day".
'I John, who also am your brother,
.. and companion in tribulation,
.... and in the kingdom
...... and patience of Jesus Christ,
........ was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God,
.......... and for the testimony of Jesus Christ.
I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day,
.. and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,
.... Saying, I am Alpha and Omega,
...... the first and the last:
......... and, What thou seest, write in a book,
............ and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia;
.............. unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos,
................ and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.
And I turned to see the voice that spake with me ... .'

(Rev 1:9-12a)

Hello @3 Resurrections,

He was there in Patmos 'for the word of God' and 'for the testimony of Jesus Christ'. He was 'in the Spirit', 'on the Lord's day'. What he saw he was to write in a book, and send to the seven churches (then existing - in that Lord's day) . For he was no longer in his present, but would be witnessing testimony concerning 'the Lord's day', which was yet to come. A similar occurrence happened to Ezekiel in (8:3).

'And he put forth the form of an hand,
and took me by a lock of mine head;
and the spirit lifted me up between the earth and the heaven,
and brought me in the visions of God to Jerusalem, '

(Eze 8:3a)

This is a fairly common interpretation, but as it happens, an impossible one. No rewards according to every man's work were given out at the Mount of Transfiguration. Neither did Christ "come" in a return on that mount of transfiguration, because He had never left at that point. Moreover, Christ's promise was that only "some", (but not all of the multitude He was speaking to), would still be alive to see this return. There were not mass deaths in Israel with just a small remnant of people left alive in the interim of five days between this Matt. 16:27-28 statement of Christ and the Mount of Transfiguration.​
'And as they came down from the mountain,
Jesus charged them, saying,
Tell the vision to no man,
until the Son of man be risen again
from the dead. '

(Mat 17:9)

* The three disciples were given a foretaste of what was to come, when they saw the vision of the Lord coming in His glory. They had at least witnessed what was to come, as the Lord had said. If Israel had come to repentance then Christ would have returned, as promised in Acts 3:18-21, but they did not. The likelihood of those listening to the Lord in Matthew 16 being alive and remaining to His coming was contingent on that happening.

Exactly. That's my point. An "at hand" prophecy God says takes place "In YOUR days" for those who are hearing it for the first time when He speaks that prophecy, and then performs it. In this case in Ezekiel 12:21-28, five years later would have been the fulfillment of that particular "at hand" prophecy for those people in their own days. For John's revealed visions, any of them related to the future would also take place in the days of his own first-century generation when those "at hand" prophecies between Rev. 1:3 and 22:10 were to be fulfilled.​

* It was all contingent on the repentance of the nation of Israel taking place. The potential was there, but it now awaits a yet future day.

* What has this got to do with the subject of the thread?

In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
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