David Koberstein
Active member
In the Gospel of Mark, Judean Pharisees came to Jesus (Yeshua) and asked Him whether it was lawful for a man to divorce a woman
(Mark 10:1-12). In discussing this question, Jesus stated, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her,
and if divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery." This sounds like a complete denial of any legitimacy for
divorce and remarriage at all, in any case.
However, the version of the story in the Gospel of Matthew clarifies the nature of the question they were discussing. No follower of
the God of Israel at the time of Jesus would have thought it possible that the Word of God given through Moses had erred in permitting
divorce. (see Deut. 24:1-4); Exod. 21:10-11). Though different schools debated the circumstances that permitted divorce, none thought
it was forbidden in all cases. The fuller version of the story in the Gospel of Matthew helps to clarify this context. There we read the fuller
question, "Can a man divorce a woman for any reason?" (Matt. 19:3-9)
A conservative Jewish approach understood "unfaithfulness," "abuse," or "abandonment" as the only valid grounds for divorce.
Various more progressive Jewish interpreters argued that a man had a right to divorce his wife for any reason at all
(see Babylonian Talmud Gittin 90a). When Jesus was faced with this question, He rejected this idea taught by the Pharisees of the house
or school of Hillel (divorce for any reason), siding instead with the Pharisees of the house of Shammai and the Essenes (divorce in
stringently defined situations).
Shalom
(Mark 10:1-12). In discussing this question, Jesus stated, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her,
and if divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery." This sounds like a complete denial of any legitimacy for
divorce and remarriage at all, in any case.
However, the version of the story in the Gospel of Matthew clarifies the nature of the question they were discussing. No follower of
the God of Israel at the time of Jesus would have thought it possible that the Word of God given through Moses had erred in permitting
divorce. (see Deut. 24:1-4); Exod. 21:10-11). Though different schools debated the circumstances that permitted divorce, none thought
it was forbidden in all cases. The fuller version of the story in the Gospel of Matthew helps to clarify this context. There we read the fuller
question, "Can a man divorce a woman for any reason?" (Matt. 19:3-9)
A conservative Jewish approach understood "unfaithfulness," "abuse," or "abandonment" as the only valid grounds for divorce.
Various more progressive Jewish interpreters argued that a man had a right to divorce his wife for any reason at all
(see Babylonian Talmud Gittin 90a). When Jesus was faced with this question, He rejected this idea taught by the Pharisees of the house
or school of Hillel (divorce for any reason), siding instead with the Pharisees of the house of Shammai and the Essenes (divorce in
stringently defined situations).
Shalom
