James?

praise_yeshua

Well-known member
The "book" of James is a controversial book. No one can reasonably say otherwise. "James" is not listed among the earliest canonical lists from 2nd century. Also, the author is not known. There has traditionally been various appeals to the which "James" from the NT might have written the manuscript. The most commonly chosen person among the candidates is James the "ruler" of the church of Jerusalem.

I will begin by accepting that this particular "James" is the author. Though I highly doubt it for some reasons I will list below.

James is primarily problematic due to the words that are recorded in the extant manuscripts. In other words "Internal Evidence".

1. "James" is the leader of the church of Jerusalem, only references Jesus Christ twice in the enter manuscript. Compare this to at least 13 times that John names Christ found in 1 John.

2. "James" is the leader of the church of Jerusalem, contradictory appeals to keeping the law as justification for salvation.

I'm list a variant manuscript below because this variant is very old and provides evidence for a "smoothing" correction later in the manuscript evidence.

Jas 1:22 But be doers of the law, and not hearers only, deceiving yourselves.
Jas 1:25 But the one who looks into the perfect law, the law of liberty, and perseveres, being no hearer who forgets but a doer who acts, he will be blessed in his doing.

Which establishes salvation apart from faith alone. Arminians readily acknowledge this in their doctrine.

This teaching is contrary to Abraham's sin thru Sarah in Ishmael and the clearly discernable fact that all men sin. Even though who are born again.

I will begin here and let others respond.
 
1. "James" is the leader of the church of Jerusalem, only references Jesus Christ twice in the enter manuscript.

1. But does so in equality with the Father in that Christians are their slaves (= worshipers) in James 1:1.

2. Applies the absolute "Name" in reference to the Lord Jesus in James 2:7 and this links with the use of "Jesus" in James 2:1.
3. In relation to number #2, notice how James applies "the Name of the Lord" from an OT viewpoint in James 5:10 in equality to the Lord Jesus in James 5:14.
 
James would hardly have to tell Jewish Christians who Jesus is. I suspect the problems he was addressing were the same issues addressed directly by Jesus. The point about being doers of the law not just hearers appears to be a vital but cliche rebuke against the tendency to be judging others according to the law. I think it is used here as an admonition against judging while also advocating the law of Christ several verses later.
We see in Acts 21:17ff there was still a focus on the law in Jerusalem --such that many could be judging each other on those. Sure they were not obligated to the Mosaic law but two points are critical. They still could do things of the law as long as they recognized Christ as their righteousness. They also were facing pressure in the broader community to follow the traditions. In Hebrews we see more of the pressures in general that were upon them.
 
Then if there is a late acceptance of the letter, most church assemblies could see the letter as applicable more to Jewish Christians than to the general church. The other issue, of course, is the seeming focus on the law and works. But those do not appear to be severe issues when examined in the context of the Jerusalem church (or is it common in other neighboring areas?). This last question arises due to my curiosity why James would need to write a letter to those nearby him. Maybe it was written to Jewish Christians who mostly were in other cities. The other possibility is if James was sick or house arrest -- but we do not have any record of that, especially since James (the person himself) seems to be accepted by a broad group of people
 
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1. But does so in equality with the Father in that Christians are their slaves (= worshipers) in James 1:1.

As does most every Unitarian. The quantity of references to Christ is a meaningful observation.

Just making the point.

2. Applies the absolute "Name" in reference to the Lord Jesus in James 2:7 and this links with the use of "Jesus" in James 2:1.

Can be seen as indicating a late writing after the establishment of the reference of Christian by Peter. Also, a minimal appeal. Judas call Christ Lord.

3. In relation to number #2, notice how James applies "the Name of the Lord" from an OT viewpoint in James 5:10 in equality to the Lord Jesus in James 5:14.

Weak. I think you can easily recognize that when comparing the writing of "James" to John or Paul. You can recognize a distinct difference in how much John and Paul love Jesus Christ.

We mention those we love with great emotion.
 
James would hardly have to tell Jewish Christians who Jesus is. I suspect the problems he was addressing were the same issues addressed directly by Jesus. The point about being doers of the law not just hearers appears to be a vital but cliche rebuke against the tendency to be judging others according to the law. I think it is used here as an admonition against judging while also advocating the law of Christ several verses later.
We see in Acts 21:17ff there was still a focus on the law in Jerusalem --such that many could be judging each other on those. Sure they were not obligated to the Mosaic law but two points are critical. They still could do things of the law as long as they recognized Christ as their righteousness. They also were facing pressure in the broader community to follow the traditions. In Hebrews we see more of the pressures in general that were upon them.

Remember the context of the "leader of the Church at Jerusalem in a open letter to the 12 tribes. Yes. It is essential to tell Jews WHO Jesus Christ is. At every opportunity Paul did just that.

What would you have done?

I believe you're wanting to see "James" as being included and great leader among the church. Given the evidence, he was much less than adequate.
 
Then if there is a late acceptance of the letter, most church assemblies could see the letter as applicable more to Jewish Christians than to the general church. The other issue, of course, is the seeming focus on the law and works. But those do not appear to be severe issues when examined in the context of the Jerusalem church (or is it common in other neighboring areas?). This last question arises due to my curiosity why James would need to write a letter to those nearby him. Maybe it was written to Jewish Christians who mostly were in other cities. The other possibility is if James was sick or house arrest -- but we do not have any record of that, especially since James (the person himself) seems to be accepted by a broad group of people

There are other issues as well. I appreciate your input and reasoned responses.
 
1. But does so in equality with the Father in that Christians are their slaves (= worshipers) in James 1:1.

2. Applies the absolute "Name" in reference to the Lord Jesus in James 2:7 and this links with the use of "Jesus" in James 2:1.
3. In relation to number #2, notice how James applies "the Name of the Lord" from an OT viewpoint in James 5:10 in equality to the Lord Jesus in James 5:14.

Also, Thank you for your input and reasoned responses.
 
As does most every Unitarian. The quantity of references to Christ is a meaningful observation.

Just making the point.


How do you know that most believe this?

Judas call Christ Lord.


Judas was not a believer.

Weak. I think you can easily recognize that when comparing the writing of "James" to John or Paul. You can recognize a distinct difference in how much John and Paul love Jesus Christ.

We mention those we love with great emotion.

The above is weak.

That James would refer to Christ in such a manner shows his correct understanding of who He is.
 
How do you know that most believe this?

Just my educated assessment given my interaction with them. I might have overstated using the word "most". :)

Judas was not a believer.

Yeah. Kinda my point. I have hope that he will be among the faithful. I tend to believe that God had mercy on him and he repented before his death.

The above is weak.
That James would refer to Christ in such a manner shows his correct understanding of who He is.

We can disagree. Many call Christ Lord. I gather meaning from what they say about our Lord and how they place the priority on Christ. I believe you can recognize that "James" is really not similar to most any other manuscript in the NT. I'm not the only one that has ever recognized this. I believe anyone that reads the manuscript will see a stark difference.
 
Continuing the OP....

3. James ties works irrevocably to salvation.

Jas 2:24 You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.

"James even goes as far as to claim the Scripture was not fulfilled at all until Abraham offered up his only son.

Jas 2:23 and the Scripture was fulfilled that says, “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”—and he was called a friend of God.

Abraham didn't offer up Isaac for decades after "believing God".

Which is a direct contradiction to what Paul preached.

4. James unjustly ties the faith of demons in comparison to those who only claim faith in Christ.

Jas 2:17 So also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead.
Jas 2:18 But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith apart from your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.
Jas 2:19 You believe that God is one; you do well. Even the demons believe—and shudder!

Huge problem here......
Christ died for men. Not for angels. In fact, angels don't understand why Christ died for mankind.

Heb 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Heb 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

Comparing faith alone of men to the "faith" of demons is really a major blunder relative to any theological position.

Heb 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

5. If what James preached is true, then demons would get saved if Christ would have died to save them. All they would have to do is return to obeying God.

They would prove their faith by their works.

Truth is.... not even men can do this.....

Mat 7:22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
Mat 7:23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
 
Remember the context of the "leader of the Church at Jerusalem in a open letter to the 12 tribes. Yes. It is essential to tell Jews WHO Jesus Christ is. At every opportunity Paul did just that.

What would you have done?

I believe you're wanting to see "James" as being included and great leader among the church. Given the evidence, he was much less than adequate.
I consider the arguments about absence of topics to be superfluous. The letters in the New Testament were written to specific situations and did not need to include the kitchen sink.
 
The "book" of James is a controversial book. No one can reasonably say otherwise. "James" is not listed among the earliest canonical lists from 2nd century. Also, the author is not known. There has traditionally been various appeals to the which "James" from the NT might have written the manuscript. The most commonly chosen person among the candidates is James the "ruler" of the church of Jerusalem.

I will begin by accepting that this particular "James" is the author. Though I highly doubt it for some reasons I will list below.

James is primarily problematic due to the words that are recorded in the extant manuscripts. In other words "Internal Evidence".

1. "James" is the leader of the church of Jerusalem, only references Jesus Christ twice in the enter manuscript. Compare this to at least 13 times that John names Christ found in 1 John.

2. "James" is the leader of the church of Jerusalem, contradictory appeals to keeping the law as justification for salvation.

I'm list a variant manuscript below because this variant is very old and provides evidence for a "smoothing" correction later in the manuscript evidence.

Jas 1:22 But be "doers of the law", and not hearers only, deceiving yourselves.
Jas 1:25 But the one who looks into the perfect law, the law of liberty, and perseveres, being no hearer who forgets but a doer who acts, he will be blessed in his doing.

Paul teaches regarding the God "of the Bible";

Rom. 2: 6 Who will render to every man "according to his deeds":

7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing "seek for" glory and honour and immortality, eternal life: (Salvation)

8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath, (No Salvation)

Why does he teach this Gospel of the Christ "of the Bible"?

13 (For "not the hearers" of the law are just before God, but the "doers of the law" shall be justified.

So then, James and Paul teach the exact same Gospel, Word for Word.

What does Peter teach;

Acts 5: 29 Then Peter and the other apostles answered and said, We ought to "obey God" rather than men. 30 The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree. 31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins. 32 And we are his witnesses of these things; "and so is also the Holy Ghost", whom God hath given "to them that obey him".

And again;

2 Pet. 3: 13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness. 14 Wherefore, beloved, seeing that ye look for such things, be diligent that ye may be found of him in peace, without spot, and blameless.

So Peter, James and Paul, according to all known scriptures, teach the exact same "works based salvation" gospel.

What does the Jesus "of the Bible", who created the "law" in the first place teach?

24 Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine, and "doeth them", I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock: 25 And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; and it fell not: for it was founded upon a rock.

26 And every one that heareth these sayings of mine, and "doeth them not", shall be likened unto a foolish man, which built his house upon the sand: 27 And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; and it fell: and great was the fall of it.

And again;

Rev. 22: 12 And, behold, I (Jesus of the Bible) come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give "every man" according as "his work" shall be.

So the Jesus "of the bible" who taught James, Peter and Paul, also teaches to be a "Doer" of the Sayings God gave Jesus to give to us.

What about the Law and Prophets?

Deut. 28: 9 The LORD shall establish thee an holy people unto himself, as he hath sworn unto thee, "if thou shalt keep" the commandments of the LORD thy God, and walk in his ways.

Ecc. 12: 13 Let us hear the conclusion of the whole matter: Fear God, and keep his commandments: "for this is the whole duty of man". 14 For God shall bring "every work" into judgment, with every secret thing, whether it be good, or whether it be evil.

So then, according to what is actually written in the Holy Scriptures we have in our homes today, God and the Prophets, and His Son the Jesus "of the Bible", and Paul and James and Peter all taught the exact same Gospel. All united in Christ that those who "Yield themselves" servants to obey God in this life, AKA are DOERS OF THE LAW, not hearers only, "IS FAITH", and will share in the Salvation of God.

That the "doers" of the Good Works God before ordained that we should walk in them are justified, not the hearers only.

Which establishes salvation apart from faith alone. Arminians readily acknowledge this in their doctrine.

Given what is actually written, how can True Faith exist without "Works"? Faith without works is dead. Abraham was a "Doer" of God's Laws, Judgments and Statutes and so was every example of Faith in the Bible. This is simply undeniable Biblical truth

The Jesus of the Bible teaches "Man shall "Live By" EVERY Word that proceeds from the mouth of God

True Faith is therefore not just hearing God's Word, like the Armenians and Calvinists and all of this world's religions "who come in Christ's Name", but "Living By" AKA "Doing" them.

So it is not only James that presents problems with the religious philosophy you have adopted and are now promoting to others, its the entire Bible.
 
Continuing the OP....

3. James ties works irrevocably to salvation.

Jas 2:24 You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.

So did the Jesus "of the Bible", and the Prophets before Him, and so does Paul and Peter as the Scriptures clearly show. Somehow Faith is defined by this world's self-proclaimed "ministers of righteousness" as ANTHING, EVERYTHING but obedience to God in the "good works" that HE before ordained that we should walk in them.

I would seek the Righteousness of God, to know what "good works" HE before ordained that we should walk in them. As opposed to Judging the Holy scriptures as "problematic" to your religion.
"James even goes as far as to claim the Scripture was not fulfilled at all until Abraham offered up his only son.

You judge James wrongfully here.

Gen. 15: 4 And, behold, the word of the LORD came unto him, saying, This shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth "out of thine own bowels" shall be thine heir. 5 And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him, So shall thy seed be.

6 And he believed in the LORD; and "he (Lord) counted it to him for righteousness."

Does God not test the Faith of His people? Paul and Peter and Jesus and the Prophets all teach that He does.

1 Peter 1:6,7, Matt. 13:20, 21, Rom. 5:3-5, IS. 48:10, Jer. 9:7, Deut 8: 2-5, 1 Thess. 3:4-5, I could go on and on.

Heb. 11: 17 By faith Abraham, when "he was tried", offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,

18 Of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called: 19 Accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.

And what does James teach?

21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son (Firey trial) upon the altar?

22 Seest thou how faith (belief) wrought with "his works",(obedience) and "by works" was faith "made perfect"?



Jas 2:23 and the Scripture was fulfilled that says, “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”—and he was called a friend of God.

Abraham didn't offer up Isaac for decades after "believing God".

Yes, God tested Abram's faith as HE does everyone. What is your point?
Which is a direct contradiction to what Paul preached.

This is foolishness.

Paul doesn't teach against this at all. You might, other mainstream preachers of this world might, but Paul and James were on the same page as the Law and Prophets.

In Galatians, the Jews were trying to convert gentiles to their religious philosophy which included their version of the Levitical Priesthood burnt offering and sacrifices for remission of sin. This "law" wasn't even ADDED until 430 years after Abraham, and was only to be in place until the Prophesied High Priest "After the Order of Melchizedek" should come. Abraham was Justified "Apart" from these "Works of the Law" the Pharisees were still promoting, as Levi wasn't even born yet. Had God instituted the Levitical Priesthood offering and sacrifices for sin in Abraham's time, Abraham would have obeyed from the heart just as he did God's commandments, Judgments, Statutes and laws.

Abraham was a "Doer" of God's Law here. Did God not test his faith/belief when he asked Abram to sacrifice his only son? Of course HE does, that's His Program.


4. James unjustly ties the faith of demons in comparison to those who only claim faith in Christ.

Not all men who call Jesus Lord, Lord, or as you say, "claim faith in Christ", shall enter the Kingdom of heaven. The "Doers" of the Christ's Sayings shall stand in that day, not the hearers only. At least this is what God, the Law and Prophets, His Son Jesus, Peter, James and Paul all teach, as the scriptures I posted clearly show.

Jas 2:17 So also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead.
Jas 2:18 But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith apart from your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.
Jas 2:19 You believe that God is one; you do well. Even the demons believe—and shudder!

Huge problem here......
Christ died for men. Not for angels. In fact, angels don't understand why Christ died for mankind.

Here, listen to Paul.

Titus 1: 15 Unto the pure all things are pure: but unto them that are defiled and unbelieving is nothing pure; but even their mind and conscience is defiled.

16 They "profess that they know God"; but "in works" they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate.

Abraham didn't do these things when his faith was tested, as the Jesus "of the Bible" tells you, if you could only believe.

John 8: 38 I speak that which I have seen with my Father: and ye do that which ye have seen with your father.

39 They answered and said unto him, Abraham is our father. Jesus saith unto them, If ye were Abraham's children, ye would "do the works" of Abraham. 40 But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham.

What does Paul teach about this world's preachers?

2 Cor. 11: 12 But what I do, that I will do, that I may cut off occasion from them which desire occasion; that wherein they glory, "they may be found even as we".

13 For such are false apostles, deceitful workers, transforming themselves into the apostles of Christ.

14 And no marvel; "for Satan himself" is transformed into an angel of light.

15 Therefore it is no great thing if his ministers also "be transformed" as the ministers of righteousness; whose end shall be "according to their works".

Your judgment of James is based on issues and judgments from within your own heart, not based of God's Word, or the Christ "of the bible", or Paul's or Peter's words.

It is because of these scriptures and many more that I completely disagree with your adopted religious philosophy that you are promoting to others here, regarding James. Perhaps if you were to "believe" what is actually written, you might become renewed in the spirit of your mind and be less inclined to Judge your elders whose words are given to you by Inspiration of God.
 
Continuing the OP....

3. James ties works irrevocably to salvation.

Jas 2:24 You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.

"James even goes as far as to claim the Scripture was not fulfilled at all until Abraham offered up his only son.

Jas 2:23 and the Scripture was fulfilled that says, “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”—and he was called a friend of God.

Abraham didn't offer up Isaac for decades after "believing God".

Which is a direct contradiction to what Paul preached.
Paul said that if a man does not work neither should he eat (2 Thessalonians 3:10)
James would not have been included in the canon if he was an opponent to Paul.
 
Paul teaches regarding the God "of the Bible";

Rom. 2: 6 Who will render to every man "according to his deeds":

7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing "seek for" glory and honour and immortality, eternal life: (Salvation)

8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath, (No Salvation)

Why does he teach this Gospel of the Christ "of the Bible"?

13 (For "not the hearers" of the law are just before God, but the "doers of the law" shall be justified.

So then, James and Paul teach the exact same Gospel, Word for Word.

What does Peter teach;

Acts 5: 29 Then Peter and the other apostles answered and said, We ought to "obey God" rather than men. 30 The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree. 31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins. 32 And we are his witnesses of these things; "and so is also the Holy Ghost", whom God hath given "to them that obey him".

And again;

2 Pet. 3: 13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness. 14 Wherefore, beloved, seeing that ye look for such things, be diligent that ye may be found of him in peace, without spot, and blameless.

So Peter, James and Paul, according to all known scriptures, teach the exact same "works based salvation" gospel.

What does the Jesus "of the Bible", who created the "law" in the first place teach?

24 Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine, and "doeth them", I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock: 25 And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; and it fell not: for it was founded upon a rock.

26 And every one that heareth these sayings of mine, and "doeth them not", shall be likened unto a foolish man, which built his house upon the sand: 27 And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; and it fell: and great was the fall of it.

And again;

Rev. 22: 12 And, behold, I (Jesus of the Bible) come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give "every man" according as "his work" shall be.

So the Jesus "of the bible" who taught James, Peter and Paul, also teaches to be a "Doer" of the Sayings God gave Jesus to give to us.

What about the Law and Prophets?

Deut. 28: 9 The LORD shall establish thee an holy people unto himself, as he hath sworn unto thee, "if thou shalt keep" the commandments of the LORD thy God, and walk in his ways.

Ecc. 12: 13 Let us hear the conclusion of the whole matter: Fear God, and keep his commandments: "for this is the whole duty of man". 14 For God shall bring "every work" into judgment, with every secret thing, whether it be good, or whether it be evil.

So then, according to what is actually written in the Holy Scriptures we have in our homes today, God and the Prophets, and His Son the Jesus "of the Bible", and Paul and James and Peter all taught the exact same Gospel. All united in Christ that those who "Yield themselves" servants to obey God in this life, AKA are DOERS OF THE LAW, not hearers only, "IS FAITH", and will share in the Salvation of God.

That the "doers" of the Good Works God before ordained that we should walk in them are justified, not the hearers only.



Given what is actually written, how can True Faith exist without "Works"? Faith without works is dead. Abraham was a "Doer" of God's Laws, Judgments and Statutes and so was every example of Faith in the Bible. This is simply undeniable Biblical truth

The Jesus of the Bible teaches "Man shall "Live By" EVERY Word that proceeds from the mouth of God

True Faith is therefore not just hearing God's Word, like the Armenians and Calvinists and all of this world's religions "who come in Christ's Name", but "Living By" AKA "Doing" them.

So it is not only James that presents problems with the religious philosophy you have adopted and are now promoting to others, its the entire Bible.

You didn't attempt at all to engage with my commentary. You just decided to insist that your works HAVE MEANING. This is contrary to the teaching of other apostles.

If you works have ETERNAL meaning then Christ died in vain.

Also, just a little sin/leaven leavens the entire lump....

1Co 5:6 Your glorying is not good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump?

Gal 5:9 A little leaven leaveneth the whole lump.

So we have every man trying to say that their works have meaning when a single sin destroys every single work you've wrought. I'm not saying you can't do good. You can.

I'm saying that all the other apostles (contrary to James) teach that obedience is destroyed by sin. Since you can't cease from sin, you are self defeating. You, yourself, are an example of incapability of mankind to do enough good to have Eternal significance. This "writer" referenced as "James" didn't understand this at all. He sought to establish his own righteousness. He didn't BOW... the knee completely to Jesus Christ.
 
Paul said that if a man does not work neither should he eat (2 Thessalonians 3:10)
James would not have been included in the canon if he was an opponent to Paul.

What canonical council established James? Please reference it. Lets take a look at what happened at that council. Care to take the journey of discover.

There are disputed canonical lists across multiple centuries. Making an argument such as this is nonsensical. The early churched used the LXX and that canon was different than what you are using today. Peter used the LXX. James used the LXX. So the appeal to a Protestant canon is nonsensical.
 
So did the Jesus "of the Bible", and the Prophets before Him,

First, So when are you going to drag me before your church members. I will submit their judgement between us?

No they didn't. That is simply your perspective. Just quoting something without first establish your perspective as being true means what exact?

You're bloviating in an attempt to bully your way.....

Abraham worked more than you ever will. Yet,

Abraham committed sin in fathering Ishmael. How many descendants of Ishmael are now murdering the children of Isaac? How many descendents of Isaac are now murdering the descendants of Ishmael?

The sins of Abraham could only be expunged through the death of Jesus Christ.

It is amazing to me just how crazy people will act and go to try and prove their do "good works"... Your sin far outweighs any thing good you've ever done. That is true regardless of being "born again or not".

Rom 4:1 What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
Rom 4:2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.

Gal 4:22 For it is written, that Abraham had two sons, the one by a bondmaid, the other by a freewoman.
Gal 4:23 But he who was of the bondwoman was born after the flesh;
 
It is because of these scriptures and many more that I completely disagree with your adopted religious philosophy that you are promoting to others here, regarding James. Perhaps if you were to "believe" what is actually written, you might become renewed in the spirit of your mind and be less inclined to Judge your elders whose words are given to you by Inspiration of God.

So your disagreement establishes your own judgement of me? How kind of you.

You need to realize this the rest of your life. When you're judging others, you are condemning yourself.

Rom 2:1 Therefore thou art inexcusable, O man, whosoever thou art that judgest: for wherein thou judgest another, thou condemnest thyself; for thou that judgest doest the same things.
Rom 2:2 But we are sure that the judgment of God is according to truth against them which commit such things.
Rom 2:3 And thinkest thou this, O man, that judgest them which do such things, and doest the same, that thou shalt escape the judgment of God?
Rom 2:4 Or despisest thou the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leadeth thee to repentance?
Rom 2:5 But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;

The Scriptures are a self awareness test. I've judged myself unworthy of salvation. I've judged you unworthy of salvation. I judge all men the same because every man does the same things. They can't see themselves for their hatred/disagreement with others.

You don't answer to me. Feel free to "work" however you please. Just don't tell me that you're better than I am. Which is what you're doing when you're making the judgements of me that you're making.
 
You judge James wrongfully here.

Gen. 15: 4 And, behold, the word of the LORD came unto him, saying, This shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth "out of thine own bowels" shall be thine heir. 5 And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him, So shall thy seed be.

6 And he believed in the LORD; and "he (Lord) counted it to him for righteousness."

Does God not test the Faith of His people? Paul and Peter and Jesus and the Prophets all teach that He does.
Yes, God tested Abram's faith as HE does everyone. What is your point?
Abraham was a "Doer" of God's Law here. Did God not test his faith/belief when he asked Abram to sacrifice his only son? Of course HE does, that's His Program.

James appeals to an event 25 years removed the judgement of God in Abraham's life. God judged Abraham righteous while Abraham was still uncircumcised. He then received a "seal" of righteousness.

James is 25 years late......

Abraham took Isaac up a mountain to unjustly murder his own son. Abraham believed that God would raise Isaac from the dead because God had promised that the Heir of all things would come throw the seed of Isaac.

It is the faith of Abraham in the ability of God to rise Isaac from that dead that pleased God. God stopped Abraham from actually "WORKING".

You want to believe that offering Isaac is what pleased God when that is not true. It is the heart of man that God looks upon. Intent. Intimacy. Belief. Not just what we follow through with..... in obedience.

You fail. You know you do. That leaven... leavens the whole lump... I fail, that leaven leavens the entire lump.

This "James" never understands this at all. It is why he wrote what he wrote.
 
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