I posted this explanation in a different thread but it is very applicable here.
I'd like to address one of the most common parroted phrase which Christians have been using for millennia now in order to cancel each other. "No one knows the day or the hour". If someone doesn't like someone's opinion about the Second Coming the knee-jerk action is to yell in their face "No one knows the day or the hour". It's like screaming "conspiracy theorist" at someone in order to try and discredit them.
Both Matthew 24 and Mark 13 contain the statement.
[Mat 24:36 LSB] 36 "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone.
[Mar 13:32 LSB] 32 "But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but the Father [alone].
A definite statement that allows for no other interpretation, right? Or does it? The english translations always include the particular interpretation bias of the translators. You always have to be aware of this. Constantly go back to the text in the original language to examine things for yourselves. But exactly what language was this text written in? As we've always been taught for centuries in Western Christianity, it was obviously written in Greek. However, the Church of the East has their Scriptures in Syriac (Aramaic) and their tradition is that the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic from the start.
Examine the Greek grammar:
https://www.blueletterbible.org/tools/interlinear/mgnt/mat/24/36/
https://www.blueletterbible.org/tools/interlinear/mgnt/mar/13/32/
Notice the word for "know" is "oudeis" and then there is an interesting two word phrase "ei me" being translated as "but". It literally means "not lest if". That does not make sense in the context of what the translators thought so they left out the "if".
However, there is another verse that has very similar grammatical structure. But you wouldn't know it in the english translations.
[1Co 2:2 LSB] 2 For I determined to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ, and Him crucified.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/tools/interlinear/mgnt/1co/2/2/
What does that even mean? Paul decided to "know nothing"? How is that even possible? There are those same two words in Greek "ei me". "not lest if". Here the english translates the words as "except".
Here the Aramaic gives some clues as to the proper interpretation.
http://dukhrana.com/peshitta/analyz...2&source=ubs&font=Estrangelo+Edessa&size=125%
The word used for "know" doesn't just mean in the state of having the knowledge but can have the sense of an omniscient one revealing and making that knowledge known. So Paul is stating that he decided to
reveal nothing among them
except if it was about Jesus Christ and specifically Him crucified.
Apply that back to Matthew 24 and Mark 13.
But about that day and about that hour no one can reveal it; not the angels in heaven, not the son; except if the Father [allows].
And we can be sure that it is possible to know this information (according to God's plan) later in Matthew 24:43. Jesus tells his followers to stay awake. If the owner of the house had known when the thief would come, he would have been prepared and not had his belongings stolen. That means if they stay awake it IS possible to know at what time this will all happen. But it is according to God's pleasure for this to be revealed to those that are prepared and watching and with a proper understanding of that which was taught through the Scriptures.
So screaming "no one knows the day or the hour" at each other is not at all what Jesus was actually trying to get across.
